محتوى الدورة
السياسات والاجراءات
تم تحميل كافة السياسات والاجراءات.
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محتوى حقيبة المتدرب
تم تحميل كافة محتوى حقيبة الطالب للمرفقات
Introduction to Course
CPHRM EXAM ANSWERING STRATEGY. Introduction to Course chapters: PATIENT SAFTY, RISK FINANCING, LEGAL & REGULATORY, HC OPERATIONS, CLAIMS MANAGEMENT.
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دورة (CPHRM) الاعداد لاختبار الممارس المعتمد في إدارة مخاطر الرعاية الصحية
حول الدرس

اختبار (CPHRM) الاعداد لاختبار الممارس المعتمد في إدارة مخاطر الرعاية الصحية

1 / 1231

Match the risk mitigation technique with its MOST accurate application within a healthcare setting:

2 / 1231

Match each term with its corresponding legal or regulatory context relevant to insurance operations:

3 / 1231

Match the appropriate element with its correct description pertaining to insurance policy construction:

4 / 1231

Match each risk financing technique with the appropriate characteristic:

5 / 1231

Match the term with its precise definition within the context of retrospective insurance rating:

6 / 1231

Help choose a various reason in why your organization isn't successful

7 / 1231

Couple financial risks, is important in understanding what is is coming..:?

8 / 1231

Combine key components of reporting for high volume reporting where more is needed to track..

9 / 1231

Combine the various steps where the losses can be determined to be managed and understood

10 / 1231

Match the following terms used in claims to their best suited description

11 / 1231

12 / 1231

13 / 1231

Match up the following terms used for "Due Diligence", to avoid fraud and abuse claims:

14 / 1231

Match the following financial ratios to better make informed choice for best rates:

15 / 1231

Match the words used to describe the purpose of having an insurance policy to its description:

16 / 1231

Match following types of financial instruments listed to their definitions:

17 / 1231

Match the workers compensation to the financial benefit that the affected employee has :

18 / 1231

Match types of Risk Retention techniques:

19 / 1231

Match the risk financing techniques with their description:

20 / 1231

Match the following insurance policy types to its description:

21 / 1231

Match the roles involved in insurance purchasing with their responsibility:

22 / 1231

Match the following 'levels' of excess coverage with their descriptions:

23 / 1231

Match the characteristics of hard and soft insurance markets:

24 / 1231

Match the insurance terms with their appropriate definition:

25 / 1231

Match Risk Categories (ERM) to their descriptions:

26 / 1231

Match the following aspects of traditional risk management to modern Enterprise Risk Management (ERM):

27 / 1231

Match the following risk management terms with their definitions:

28 / 1231

There are four important aspects to any definition of Risk Management: Risk Indifference; Risk Appetite; Risk Evaluation; and Risk Monitoring.

29 / 1231

From the point of view of minimizing losses then it's best that organizations should take a reactive approach with Traditional Risk management.

30 / 1231

Operational risk invariably relates to risks from workplace safety alone.

31 / 1231

In insurance contracts, there is no relationship to third-party contracts.

32 / 1231

Regarding insurance purchasing, agents invariably represent only the purchaser, advocating exclusively for their interests in coverage and pricing.

33 / 1231

In determining the cost of risk, financial auditing expenses are classified uniquely under 'hazard' risks, precluding their allocation to operational or strategic risk assessments.

34 / 1231

Under a 'claims-made' insurance policy, coverage is triggered simply by the occurrence of the insured incident, irrespective of when the claim is actually reported to the insurer.

35 / 1231

The 'retention ratio' in risk financing techniques invariably entails the complete transfer of financial responsibility to a third-party insurer, nullifying any direct financial burden on the insured entity.

36 / 1231

In traditional risk management, the assessment of risks heavily weighs speculative gains over potential losses, focusing predominantly on opportunities for financial upside.

37 / 1231

Enterprise Risk Management's primary objective is to enhance the volatility of an organization's strategic planning, disregarding the interconnectedness of risks and their potential synergistic effects.

38 / 1231

Actuaries are experts specialized in evaluating risk, but are not generally consulted on insurance pricing.

39 / 1231

Once an insurance policy is in place, the premiums cannot be changed, even with an increase in risk.

40 / 1231

It is not important to use different types of financial and insurance regulation.

41 / 1231

It is more safe to be audited in certain risk rather than not at all.

42 / 1231

It's common practice to utilize an older company, from sometime in the 1970s, for financial protection.

43 / 1231

The overall number rating is more important if an organization is in-prevention or non preventable risk.

44 / 1231

Having all C-suite at an organization with no prior knowledge in risk management decisions allows for a more diverse risk.

45 / 1231

It is more important to evaluate a broker than the actual insurance policy

46 / 1231

It is crucial for insurance departments to get licensed to make claims

47 / 1231

There is no need for retroactive date when coverage is claims made.

48 / 1231

A key advantage of a 'conceptual proposal' is the speed. Using the conceptual approach will generate, overall, faster results and more streamlined responses.

49 / 1231

In the context of insurance, 'Incurred But Not Reported' (IBNR) refers to losses related to property damage.

50 / 1231

The data listed, does _not_, generally need to be in both actuaries, claims, finance, and the legal department; instead, the claim department is supposed to receive that information.

51 / 1231

A key element of a 'market proposal' for insurance purchasing is that broker selection depends primarily on cost and services, rather than broker experience.

52 / 1231

The "stop-loss" method is designed to determine what point of cost containment provides maximal value, at no cost, and with high specificity.

53 / 1231

Risk management is a static process that does not require continuous monitoring or updates.

54 / 1231

Operational risks are primarily related to external factors like market competition.

55 / 1231

A self-insurance trust provides more flexible spending options for funds compared to other arrangements.

56 / 1231

To obtain insights into an organization's total cost of risk, it is unnecessary to consider uninsured losses.

57 / 1231

In a 'claims-made' insurance policy, coverage is determined solely by when the incident occurred, regardless of when the claim is reported.

58 / 1231

ISO 31000 is explicitly mentioned as a required compliance standard for healthcare risk management in the provided materials.

59 / 1231

A company can transfer the financial burden but NOT necessarily the ultimate legal responsibility for losses.

60 / 1231

Risk Control involves addressing financial losses after they occur.

61 / 1231

In risk management, 'insurance risk' refers to the potential harm a company could suffer due to fluctuating insurance rates.

62 / 1231

Risk management is primarily handled by a single department within an organization.

63 / 1231

A key goal of enterprise risk management is to increase uncertainty to promote innovation.

64 / 1231

An insurance policy's exclusions define what the policy _will_ cover under specific circumstances.

65 / 1231

Strategic risks, unlike financial risks, are considered outside the scope of Enterprise Risk Management.

66 / 1231

The overarching goal of modern risk management is to provide the least amount of protection, thus maximizing profits at the expense of patient safety.

67 / 1231

Traditional risk management encourages open communication with patients and their families regarding findings after an adverse event.

68 / 1231

A 'hard' insurance market is defined by easily accessible and affordable coverage options.

69 / 1231

An insurance policy's 'declarations page' typically includes the insured's claims history.

70 / 1231

A 'potentially compensable event' (PCE) is an occurrence that is guaranteed to result in a lawsuit.

71 / 1231

In the context of risk management, 'transfer' refers to shifting the financial burden of risk to another party.

72 / 1231

Incident reporting should focus solely on serious occurrences, ignoring minor events.

73 / 1231

The ultimate purpose of Risk Management is to eliminate all potential harm.

74 / 1231

Traditional Risk Management (TRM) and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) are essentially the same thing.

75 / 1231

Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) seeks to manage risks across the entire organization.

76 / 1231

According to the presentation, strategic planning is not within the scope of Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi's expertise.

77 / 1231

Risk management in healthcare primarily addresses potential financial gains.

78 / 1231

An organization is conducting due diligence on potential insurance brokers. Beyond standard qualifications and experience, what *MOST* accurately demonstrates their capacity to develop innovative risk financing solutions tailored to their organizational profile?

79 / 1231

What is the *MOST* critical distinction between a claims-made and an occurrence insurance policy from a long-term risk management perspective?

80 / 1231

Suppose a hospital implements a new patient safety protocol aimed at reducing surgical site infections (SSIs). Which quantitative metric would *BEST* reflect the efficacy of this risk control technique?

81 / 1231

Under a “retrospective rating” plan, what does it *MOST* directly indicate of the final premium determination at the end of the policy period?

82 / 1231

If an insurance company references IBNR (Incurred But Not Reported) in their actuarial reports, what does this *MOST* accurately suggest regarding their estimation of total liabilities?

83 / 1231

In a healthcare system characterized by high operational complexity and interdependence, what is *MOST* critical to establishing a robust and proactively managed risk management framework?

84 / 1231

A large academic medical center is considering implementing a 'blended risk transfer/retention' strategy, utilizing both a high-deductible insurance policy and a captive insurer. What are the *MOST* important factors the CFO needs to evaluate to confirm the economic viability of that plan?

85 / 1231

When evaluating a claims-made insurance policy, what are the *MOST* critical considerations regarding 'nose coverage' (prior acts coverage) and 'tail coverage' (extended reporting period) a risk manager should analyze?

86 / 1231

An integrated delivery network (IDN) is contemplating shifting from a traditional insurance model toward a risk retention strategy involving a captive insurer. What *critical* prerequisite must be satisfied to ensure the economic viability and regulatory compliance of this captive?

87 / 1231

In a "hard insurance market", what is a likely outcome for insurance buyers?

88 / 1231

Given a healthcare organization with a mature ERM program, which metric would *MOST* comprehensively reflect the program's efficacy in fortifying resilience against systemic shocks, such as pandemics?

89 / 1231

What action best helps create steps and solutions for listed issues?

90 / 1231

In a risk-financing context, what does “cost certainty” *MOST* directly imply for an organization?

91 / 1231

How do economic conditions affect risk transfer/insurance plans?

92 / 1231

What type of policy would be used at 2 different points to insure 2 groups of physicians, where one group had past coverage and one group is about to set up new coverage:

93 / 1231

What is the *MOST* complete and accurate definition of an insurance policy's 'declarations page'?

94 / 1231

What is the *primary* role of an actuary in the context of healthcare risk management and insurance?

95 / 1231

How does an 'unfunded loss reserve' function within risk retention?

96 / 1231

Which factor would likely be the *MOST* influential for a hospital when deciding between a traditional insurance plan and a self-insured retention (SIR) plan?

97 / 1231

Under a "claims-made" insurance policy, what action is critical for coverage if an incident occurs near the end of the policy term?

98 / 1231

To ensure well covered, well support and better support, which option allows one to stay in-line?

99 / 1231

Which attribute should a business value when looking for a new broker?

100 / 1231

What is meant when an insurance provider cites 'Nose Coverage'?

101 / 1231

With what is "cost certainty" best associated within a risk financing context?

102 / 1231

Under an insurance arrangement, what primarily motivates using actuarial reviews?

103 / 1231

What is the goal of Risk Financing techniques used in risk management?

104 / 1231

What is a _claims-made_ insurance policy most distinguished for?

105 / 1231

Which insurance sector is 'HMO/Capitation stop loss' most pertinent to?

106 / 1231

Within insurance policies, what signifies the 'declarations page'?

107 / 1231

Under insurance policies incorporating a 'deductible', who bears the responsibility for covering expenses up to the deductible amount?

108 / 1231

What fundamentally defines 'Insurance' in the context of risk transfer?

109 / 1231

In the domain of insurance, what is a 'captive insurer' most akin to?

110 / 1231

Which option accurately defines 'current expensing of losses' within Risk Retention?

111 / 1231

How do contracts containing hold-harmless agreements function under risk control techniques?

112 / 1231

What is the main function of 'Loss Prevention' as a risk control technique?

113 / 1231

In the context of ERM goals, what does 'reducing uncertainty and process variability' primarily aim to achieve?

114 / 1231

Which viewpoint accurately characterizes Risk Avoidance as a risk control technique?

115 / 1231

What is the primary difference in focus between traditional and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)?

116 / 1231

What distinguishes the 'Strategic' category of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) risk categories?

117 / 1231

In traditional risk management, what is a common approach to handling risk?

118 / 1231

According to a legal case, what 3 parts need to have those to be legal and to hold the standards (select all that apply)?

119 / 1231

In the insurance world, what would someone need to understand what they do?

120 / 1231

Which of the following is a good area for support?

121 / 1231

According to the plan, what might you expect to see as a benefit from coverage Insurance?

122 / 1231

During self insurance (credit risk), how should funds function under what?

123 / 1231

The part of your contract that defines the steps involved as best and all.

124 / 1231

An organization fails to monitor slippery floor. The family pushing patient sues.

125 / 1231

If a company wanted a plan in which they pay per individual losses, self insurance, how often do they expect those pay?

126 / 1231

Under direct insurance, what is the purpose of having 'excess insurance'?

127 / 1231

How do risk reduction techniques aim to reduce or mitigate a loss?

128 / 1231

Which of the following exposures does NOT belong under third party insurance coverage?

129 / 1231

Which of the following actions is most aligned with the use of 'risk control' after considering Risk Identification and before Risk Financing?

130 / 1231

If all was in place for steps, what then is required?

131 / 1231

When working with a contract that requires insurance, what needs to be considered first?

132 / 1231

To follow one of the steps for help and action, what needs to be done before the correct actions arrive?

133 / 1231

If an agency wanted to retain less loss exposure and potentially look to transfer more to the insurance company, should they look to be in more of a **_soft_** market or a **_hard_** market?

134 / 1231

If a plan has high value, what makes them important to run?

135 / 1231

When a plan does not follow what has been set, what then should occur?

136 / 1231

All steps and changes need well- what?

137 / 1231

What are four steps that can help and be the correct steps?

138 / 1231

Depending on Underwriter to account to follow the data provided to be correct

139 / 1231

Most steps require which thing from the brokers?

140 / 1231

According to Insurance groups, what is the most important for plans?

141 / 1231

If a report mentions the topic 'Nose Coverage' what might it mention?

142 / 1231

When are the costs under retro come?

143 / 1231

When changing providers to new medical care. Which option allows one to stay in-line and with better support?

144 / 1231

Once an issue has been listed, what best helps guide steps and potential solutions for these incidents?

145 / 1231

The part of your contract that defines the most standard data for insurance is?

146 / 1231

What role helps with data to be calculated under actuarial use?

147 / 1231

When examining professional liability, which one of these has the potential to add more data?

148 / 1231

What is the overall goal of risk financing?

149 / 1231

According to one risk control technique, what would one do if a risk has been determined to be outside of all acceptable safety measures?

150 / 1231

What must someone provide to receive payment on their insurance policy?

151 / 1231

Under insurance non-insurance, what is an important thing to find under these services?

152 / 1231

With insurance to be considered, one must ensure:

153 / 1231

Match the type of steps with how to manage:

154 / 1231

Match the follow to its description to a good leadership

155 / 1231

Which of these factors contributed to the evolution of healthcare risk management in the 1970s?

156 / 1231

What is the primary aim of risk management?

157 / 1231

According to the content, what is the definition of 'harm' in the context of healthcare risk management?

158 / 1231

What is the focus of traditional risk management in healthcare?

159 / 1231

The step of 'Treatment' in Risk Management has goals to achieve which of the following choices?

160 / 1231

In risk ranking, after you identify the level and the likelihood of a certain step. What is next when performing a risk ranking calculation?

161 / 1231

What is the primary objective of reporting incidents in healthcare risk management?

162 / 1231

Which of the following methods is considered a 'formal' approach to risk identification?

163 / 1231

During risk identification, what is the purpose of determining the 'type of value exposed to loss'?

164 / 1231

What is the purpose of 'monitoring' in the ERM decision-making process?

165 / 1231

How does Enterprise Risk Management engage stakeholders compared to Traditional Risk Management?

166 / 1231

What is the primary focus of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) regarding risk?

167 / 1231

Which is one of the key goals of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) in healthcare?

168 / 1231

In the context of healthcare risk management, what does the term 'hazard' primarily refer to?

169 / 1231

What is the ultimate goal of the risk management process?

170 / 1231

What is considered the primary objective of traditional risk management?

171 / 1231

What would be one be required to do know all is in placed?

172 / 1231

To create a standard or agreement which of the following needs to occur or be in order to manage this?

173 / 1231

What step involves finding what is the core basis for each type from this point ?

174 / 1231

What does one need to be well covered?

175 / 1231

What to retain less a loss exposure and what action might you have to take under this market shift ?

176 / 1231

Under typical insurance policy, what is the date where all records have been recorded and updated for the insurnace company?

177 / 1231

What is the defintion or reference to for Retractive Rate?

178 / 1231

Which best describes the point/expertise of Underwriter?

179 / 1231

Which members are required for Insurance?

180 / 1231

How are a Broker and Agent different?

181 / 1231

Which is a key attribute to find when hiring a new broker?

182 / 1231

During a **_soft_** insurance market which option is more possible?

183 / 1231

What factors define drafting specification coverage?

184 / 1231

Why is there a shift occurring from traditional risk management to enterprise risk management?

185 / 1231

Which of the following steps is part of the process for ERM as a Decision-Making Process?

186 / 1231

What is the first step in the risk management process?

187 / 1231

Incident reports serve as a _cornerstone_ to which one of the following concepts?

188 / 1231

What is the goal of providing Risk Management Training?

189 / 1231

When classifying exposures, what are the three mentioned exposure types?

190 / 1231

Which one of the following methods is for the _treatment_ of an exposure using risk management techniques?

191 / 1231

What is the primary goal of risk financing?

192 / 1231

What is the distinction between risk control and risk financing?

193 / 1231

What is meant by 'unfunded loss reserve' in the context of risk financing?

194 / 1231

What is the purpose of risk retention groups?

195 / 1231

Which type of insurance provides payment if a party suffers a type of loss listed in their agreement?

196 / 1231

What is the meaning on Insurance?

197 / 1231

What is a direct function that financial Guarantees Provide?

198 / 1231

Which of the following steps is the primary focus of regulation of insurance at the state level?

199 / 1231

What does 'current expensing of losses' refer to in risk retention?

200 / 1231

According to ASHRM's definition, what does ERM in healthcare promote?

201 / 1231

What is the primary difference between Traditional Risk Management (TRM) and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) in terms of their focus?

202 / 1231

Which of the following accurately describes Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)?

203 / 1231

Match how to prepare your patient for disclosure with its best practice:

204 / 1231

Match the term to reasons patients may need some support:

205 / 1231

Match the item from column A with its definition in column B:

206 / 1231

Match the description with where it most applies:

207 / 1231

Match the following terms related to patient family relations:

208 / 1231

Match the following terms with their healthcare organization:

209 / 1231

Match the question for what we do NOT want:

210 / 1231

Match the item from the question to reason for decline in those standards:

211 / 1231

Match the step with the importance of the steps to take:

212 / 1231

Match the statement made to describe what kind of event it is:

213 / 1231

Match the statement with what is the key goal:

214 / 1231

Match the type of maturity and safety:

215 / 1231

Match the types of steps with managing medical errors:

216 / 1231

Match the following with their definitions:

217 / 1231

Match the following phrases to examples of what can cause them:

218 / 1231

Match safety culture to its correct definition:

219 / 1231

Match the definition to type of barriers:

220 / 1231

Match the phases with human reactions to medical errors:

221 / 1231

Match the item to the reasons of patient safety:

222 / 1231

Match the term used for patient relations:

223 / 1231

Match the item found in patient safety to its definition:

224 / 1231

Match the term to its meaning:

225 / 1231

Match the term to where errors are made.

226 / 1231

Match the domains of the CPHRM Examination content to its purpose:

227 / 1231

Match the description with Healthcare Organizations in high reliability.

228 / 1231

Associate the step with Applying to take the CPHRM examination.

229 / 1231

Match the following study tools with their intended use in CPHRM Examination Prep:

230 / 1231

Match the clinical area to the type of error related to the surgical department:

231 / 1231

Match the following concepts with the goals of a Just Culture:

232 / 1231

Match the human factors to how they contribute to medical errors:

233 / 1231

Match the following elements with the steps of a Root Cause Analysis (RCA):

234 / 1231

Match the following terms with their definitions related to patient safety:

235 / 1231

While healthcare providers have a duty to refrain from professional negligence, patients/consumers equally have a duty to refrain from negligently exposing themselves to harm.

236 / 1231

In a FMEA, after identifying the failure of a potential treatment you can assume the effect on the patient and that it will result in minimal impact.

237 / 1231

When performing a sentinel event review, it is okay to have only people directly involved included on the team as that is all that is needed.

238 / 1231

There are never incentives for a nurse to not report something because nurses want to do a good job always.

239 / 1231

An enforceable standard of care is what determines negligence.

240 / 1231

Use of data should be limited when first developing a program because they are not important at that time.

241 / 1231

The 'To Err is Human' report highlighted that the biggest challenge is writing good rules.

242 / 1231

Conducting a root cause analysis is primarily valuable for identifying who is responsible for an error.

243 / 1231

A patient who had surgery on the wrong body part would be a sentinel event.

244 / 1231

The Joint Commission's Sentinel Event Policy primarily focuses on punishing negligent staff.

245 / 1231

When a sentinel event happens, it does not require a report.

246 / 1231

One of the critical steps in the RCA process is ensuring there was a strong leader involved with the mistake.

247 / 1231

Adverse events always indicate a need for disciplinary action.

248 / 1231

Family members can serve as effective and reliable interpreters.

249 / 1231

In the Swiss Cheese Model, the active failures are the holes in the model.

250 / 1231

In the context of managing reliability, identifying and addressing active failures is sufficient for preventing incidents.

251 / 1231

Redesigning a system is a solution for eliminating 'human error'.

252 / 1231

Applying the correct rule consistently, even if the outcome is adverse, indicates a process is at the 'risk behavior' level.

253 / 1231

A Just Culture emphasizes reliance on short-term memory to promote quick decision-making.

254 / 1231

A key component of a High-Reliability Organization is a flattened hierarchy to promote open communication.

255 / 1231

One of the principles of HROs is to always simplify complex problems.

256 / 1231

One key attribute of High Reliability Organizations (HROs) is their ability to eliminate all sources of risk.

257 / 1231

In a 'Just Culture,' only reckless behavior and not systemic failings are addressed.

258 / 1231

In 'Just Culture,' the primary aim is to punish individuals for human error to promote accountability.

259 / 1231

In a healthcare setting, SBAR primarily functions as an analytical tool.

260 / 1231

When treating a patient who speaks a different language, direct use of family members is the best way to assure correct interpreting.

261 / 1231

In healthcare, the term 'high-risk clinical areas' exclusively refers to surgical units.

262 / 1231

The Patient Safety domain accounts for 50% of the CPHRM exam's content.

263 / 1231

In exam answering strategies, it's recommended to initially focus on the answers that seem plausible at first glance.

264 / 1231

An 'extreme phrase' in an exam question always signals a true statement.

265 / 1231

For CPHRM renewal, successful re-examination requires payment of a renewal fee.

266 / 1231

The "Application" domain in the CPHRM exam assesses the ability to recall specific information.

267 / 1231

To be eligible for the CPHRM, candidates must have at least a master's degree.

268 / 1231

Risk managers primarily focus on financial risks within healthcare organizations.

269 / 1231

AMP/PSI administers the CPHRM examination.

270 / 1231

The CPHRM exam is administered in 3 hours.

271 / 1231

The CPHRM exam consists of seven content domains.

272 / 1231

A passing score on the CPHRM exam results in the award of a certificate.

273 / 1231

The CPHRM examination includes both scored and pre-test questions.

274 / 1231

During which stage is most important for communication within a process of a sentinel event?

275 / 1231

What causes Medical errors?

276 / 1231

For a Patient Safety Organization (PSO), can?

277 / 1231

Once a process receives discovery, what improves it in an organization?

278 / 1231

What is "most feared by" safety program candidates?

279 / 1231

To improve bedside report with shift changes, which assist?

280 / 1231

Select the correct selection for Human Factors.

281 / 1231

If a client is having a team create "Solutions for Safety", what is something the group must avoid?

282 / 1231

Active failures are different from latent failures, in which?

283 / 1231

When building the program, what is important?

284 / 1231

How can hospitals meet the challenge to improve practices for its customers who now understand more?

285 / 1231

What is a "high" attribute related to the team?

286 / 1231

According to the CPHRM certification guide, high-risk clinical specialties has led to which area?

287 / 1231

Prior to recommending a new safety initiative, a consultant must:

288 / 1231

If most mistakes within an organization are blamed on employees, which factor is improved?

289 / 1231

In a high-reliability organization, which statement best illustrates the approach to failure?

290 / 1231

If your hospital faces challenges to communicate to other professionals, select what helps facilitate this.

291 / 1231

After discovering a series of near-miss events, what should the first step be in addressing them?

292 / 1231

You're tasked with implementing a new safety protocol across several departments. What should you do first?

293 / 1231

Select the correct statement.

294 / 1231

If a clinical area performs a failure and effect of an analysis (FMEA), what is the purpose of the task?

295 / 1231

What is the purpose of a tool designed to evaluate process?

296 / 1231

If a medical error occurs, what is the first priority in most healthcare organizations?

297 / 1231

Which best correlates the definition of Taxonomy?

298 / 1231

Select which answer is best.

299 / 1231

In applying the principles of a 'Just Culture', when is disciplinary action MOST appropriate?

300 / 1231

Which is the best way to respond, that displays a "Just" safety culture?

301 / 1231

What is a 'Sentinel Event' primarily related to?

302 / 1231

Within a Just Culture framework, which action would be considered appropriate after a healthcare worker makes an unintentional error?

303 / 1231

Which of the following is the definition of high-reliability organizations?

304 / 1231

Using Reason’s Swiss Cheese Model, which action would be most effective in preventing an error from reaching a patient?

305 / 1231

According to Reason’s Swiss Cheese Model of accident causation, what do the 'holes' in the slices of cheese represent?

306 / 1231

What would be a barrier for an organization to improve?

307 / 1231

In the patient’s perspective, which is most important in bedside clear reporting?

308 / 1231

When patients for whom English is not their first language require assistance, what is the most appropriate approach?

309 / 1231

If a candidate fails the CPHRM examination, what is the primary implication regarding their professional standing?

310 / 1231

According to the information provided, how many scored multiple-choice questions make up the CPHRM examination?

311 / 1231

For Certified Professionals of Healthcare Risk Management, what is one way to renew the certification?

312 / 1231

What, do staff " most fear", which lowers honesty to tell what occurred?

313 / 1231

Which area does the Joint Commission require attention, in a organization's safety processes?

314 / 1231

What must an organization implement first?

315 / 1231

What is "MOST important " when "building" a new safety culture program?

316 / 1231

You wish you "improve bedside-report" by making it clear. Which of there improves it?

317 / 1231

To help your clients in "all care events" What might you help "improve", that will "assist" in the proper safety?

318 / 1231

How can hospitals meet the "new" challenge of our customer now understanding "more", of our practices?

319 / 1231

During process discovery, you uncover several near-miss events that were addressed, but ignored by administration. To the administration, they felt mistakes do not have that much effect. What barrier seems to be the problem, for 'disclosure'?

320 / 1231

CMS is primarily related to "cost" for "Never Events", but for "Safety Practice". Which area are they MOST interested in?

321 / 1231

What is "Required", to achieve "Success" with a patients "Disclosure"?

322 / 1231

The actions "'listen," 'have empathy'" are BEST used during with which step to the patient, after an event?

323 / 1231

What must a consultant "first" achieve, before they recommend an action to" improve" safety?

324 / 1231

What step MOST improves human factor errors?

325 / 1231

Which statement displays the "Active Error" in a series of events?

326 / 1231

An organization receives a complaint of an egregious mistake in the oncology medication dispensing process. How does an organization immediately improve and create a new 'safety' process?

327 / 1231

What response BEST correlates with having a "Just" culture?

328 / 1231

What is the role of a 'taxonomy' for a risk consultant?

329 / 1231

To what does the phrase, "Stop the Line" directly refer?

330 / 1231

Which is the best methodology for a department to determine every "at promise" (unsafe) condition within its process?

331 / 1231

Healthcare organizations must have interprofessional communication. Which choice is the tool for clear communication?

332 / 1231

How might an organization promote 'patient safety' to prevent problems from potentially arising?

333 / 1231

How would a healthcare organization prioritize their patient safety in a facility that has a limited number of resources?

334 / 1231

What action demonstrates an 'organization's commitment to transparency' after a serious adverse event?

335 / 1231

How does 'high-reliability' organization structure enhance healthcare in complex situations?

336 / 1231

In what ways did "To Err is Human" influence the design of healthcare systems and processes?

337 / 1231

In a healthcare setting, the use of SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) during patient handoffs aims primarily to improve what?

338 / 1231

Which methodology would be most effective for a hospital aiming to reduce medication errors across all departments?

339 / 1231

The team uncovers an incident where a surgeon ignored a safety checklist, resulting in an infection. What action reflects the principles of a Just Culture?

340 / 1231

Within an organization with a fully developed safety culture, what behavior would employees consistently demonstrate?

341 / 1231

Which strategy would be MOST effective in improving a healthcare organization's response to medical errors, fostering a culture of safety and enabling improved patient outcomes?

342 / 1231

Which action aligns with valuing a 'just culture' after a medication error occurred?

343 / 1231

Which strategy would be most effective to shift an organization from a reactive safety approach to a proactive one?

344 / 1231

A healthcare institution implemented a new electronic health record system, but patient wait times in the emergency department increased. Which action exemplifies a 'system thinking' approach to resolve this unintended consequence?

345 / 1231

If a healthcare organization prioritizes adherence to set routines over critical evaluation in complex situations, which type of safety culture does it most likely exhibit?

346 / 1231

A healthcare provider uses a cloud-based electronic health record (EHR) system. Match the key responsibilities related to data security:

347 / 1231

Consider a scenario where a major data breach has occurred. Match the correct response with the responsible party:

348 / 1231

Match the following events with their corresponding regulatory implications under HIPAA:

349 / 1231

Match the following data security terms with their correct definitions:

350 / 1231

Match the following regulations with their respective scope regarding patient data:

351 / 1231

Match the following potential scenarios with the most legally sound course of HIPAA complaint handling:

352 / 1231

Match the EMTALA rule with its correct description, in the context of emergency medical treatment:

353 / 1231

Match the EMTALA sanction with the corresponding scenario:

354 / 1231

Match the CMS EMTALA guideline with the appropriate individual's role in a situation where an on-call specialist physician refuses to come to the emergency department (ED) to assess a patient:

355 / 1231

Match the EMTALA requirements with their corresponding actions a hospital with emergency services must perform:

356 / 1231

To avoid hippa penalties with a large business you will need?

357 / 1231

Following the emergency hipa security steps what should be part of it but not?

358 / 1231

An employer may decline to hire a disabled applicant otherwise qualified for the job with:

359 / 1231

The risk manager should be vigilant and monitor what to keep the quality of medical care with who? The risk manager should:

360 / 1231

A candidate for whom you would be a supervisor has a disability. Match which of the questions during the interview by pairing do, and don't.

361 / 1231

A candidate for whom you would be a supervisor has a disability. What information about the person can't you ask for?

362 / 1231

Match the following terms with their correct definitions related to the ADA Title III:

363 / 1231

Match the following scenarios as either a HIPAA violation or not:

364 / 1231

Match the obligations per regulations on the following entities:

365 / 1231

Match the following changes with the EMTALA Regulations in 2003:

366 / 1231

Match the characteristics from the following options:

367 / 1231

Match the scenario to the appropriate guidelines to follow under EMTALA.

368 / 1231

As the risk manager, how should you use extreme caution in all communications regarding patient care as it is part of legal/regulatory.

369 / 1231

Match the appropriate guidelines.

370 / 1231

Match the actions with the correct guidelines.

371 / 1231

Match the action as a violation of EMTALA guidelines:

372 / 1231

An emergency department physician calls the orthopedic surgeon on call. After a brief discussion, the ED physician requests that the surgeon come to the hospital to examine the patient and provide care. The surgeon refuses. According to CMS EMTALA guidelines, which of the following individuals should make the decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient?

373 / 1231

Match the following actions with whether they are required components of EMTALA:

374 / 1231

Match the reporting requirements with the hospital action required under EMTALA:

375 / 1231

Match the following authorities with the corresponding actions required if a violation occurs within 72 hours:

376 / 1231

Under the Stark Law, it is permissible for a physician to refer patients to an entity for designated health services covered by Medicare if the physician or an immediate family member has a financial relationship with the entity, provided the relationship is disclosed in writing to the patient prior to the referral.

377 / 1231

Within the ambit of ADA Title III, a private entity is at liberty to apply eligibility criteria that tend to screen out an individual with a disability if such criteria are premised upon the imperative of ensuring legitimate safety requirements for the extant operation.

378 / 1231

The HITECH Act stipulates that in the event of a data breach involving unsecured protected health information (PHI), affected individuals must be notified within 30 days of the breach's discovery.

379 / 1231

Within the context of EMTALA, if upon presentation to the Emergency Department, an individual is deemed to require services beyond the capabilities of that facility, the hospital is obligated to provide stabilizing treatment, and an appropriate transfer; the accepting facility retains the latitude to refuse the transfer based *solely* on the patient's insurance status or ability to pay.

380 / 1231

In the event that a resident is filing a formal complaint regarding an infraction of resident rights it is acceptable for the long term care facility to levy penalties against them.

381 / 1231

The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) allows a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening if a physician is immediately available

382 / 1231

According to updated EMTALA regulations, a hospital is obligated to screen and stabilize a patient who develops a medical emergency during an outpatient physical therapy visit.

383 / 1231

According to EMTALA’s Nondiscrimination Provision, a local regional referral center with available beds may refuse to accept a patient transfer due to the patient's resident status if they refuse the transfer.

384 / 1231

Under EMTALA guidelines, the decision to have an on-call specialist physician come to the ED to assess a patient can be made by the on-call specialist physician.

385 / 1231

Under EMTALA, a hospital is required to report suspected improper transfers, such as financial 'dumps', within 24 hours.

386 / 1231

A central log must be kept of all patients seeking emergent care in the hospital.

387 / 1231

A 50-year-old man was receiving antibiotic therapy as a hospital patient, but required a transfer when his condition worsen quickly. The hospital personnel did their best effort to transfer but unfortunately unsuccessful, This is not a EMTALA violation.

388 / 1231

A 90-year-old patient expresses that they are concerned about his children stealing his finance while at risk for a medical procedure, and now all communications done in front of them.

389 / 1231

If known medical malpractice has occurred, you cannot just have the doctor just sign a form that indicates that medical malpractice occurred for the case and this may cause a per se liability of the professional license.

390 / 1231

A risk professional is made aware that a nurse released protected patient info, a proper HIPAA process should be followed by reporting to OCR office of civil right.

391 / 1231

Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, employers can ask about the nature and severity of a disability during the initial job interview to determine reasonable accommodations.

392 / 1231

A central component of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is that all healthcare providers always must obtain patient authorization before disclosing PHI to external entities for reasons other than treatment, payment, or operations.

393 / 1231

EMTALA permits a certified nursing assistant (CNA) to perform a medical screening examination when a physician is unavailable.

394 / 1231

Under the Medicare program, a SNF (skilled nurse facility) emphasizes on residents' rights, safety and dignity, and that is unrelated to the Medicaid program.

395 / 1231

Under the emergency exception to the informed consent rule, only the patient's power of attorney can provide the emergency treatment.

396 / 1231

Under EMTALA regulations, an off-campus outpatient facility 2 miles from the main hospital __must__ provide a medical screening examination within its capabilities and transport to the hospital.

397 / 1231

In November 2003, federal EMTALA regulations were updated, specifying that all hospitals must have physicians on call 36 hours a day, 8 days a week.

398 / 1231

Under the EMTALA Nondiscrimination Provision, a local regional referral center is obligated to accept the transfer of a patient, if they have the capacity.

399 / 1231

Under EMTALA guidelines, the on-call specialist physician has the authority to decide whether they will come to the ED to assess a patient if requested by the ED physician.

400 / 1231

An on-site examination by the on-call cardiologist, requested due to an equivocal ECG, is considered a stabilizing treatment under EMTALA guidelines.

401 / 1231

Under EMTALA, a hospital that cannot provide complete on-call coverage for a particular service may be fined up to $75,000 without further obligations.

402 / 1231

A central log of everyone seeking emergent care in the Emergency Department must be maintained by the security department.

403 / 1231

EMTALA requires Medicare/Medicaid hospitals with emergency services to always avoid billing patients, regardless of insurance status.

404 / 1231

Hospitals are only *encouraged* to report suspected improper patient transfers.

405 / 1231

Reporting a SLA site license authority violation within 72 hours is mandatory.

406 / 1231

How should a risk manager respond to a data breach of patient information that impacts over 500 individuals locally?

407 / 1231

Which attribute would automatically categorize facility information as Protected Health Information under HIPAA regulations, thereby mandating stringent security and access control measures?

408 / 1231

In contemplating potential litigation against the healthcare organization, what proactive maneuver should the astute risk manager undertake to safeguard the organization's interests?

409 / 1231

A seasoned risk professional, upon discerning a potential documentation error within a patient's comprehensive medical record, should execute which of the following imperative actions?

410 / 1231

Within the architecture of a healthcare organization, upon receiving a subpoena for a patient's medical records, what precise course of action should the risk manager immediately prescribe to the involved staff?

411 / 1231

Which criterion definitively distinguishes information as Individually Identifiable Health Information (IIHI) under the rigorous stipulations of the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

412 / 1231

Under the labyrinthine framework of HIPAA regulations, which specific disclosure is permissible without obtaining explicit individual authorization, and without affording the individual an opportunity to either agree or object?

413 / 1231

Within the framework of Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, what specific element must be integrated into a facility safety program to ensure comprehensive compliance?

414 / 1231

According to Medicare's regulations for Long-Term Care (LTC) facilities, what are LTC laws primarily focused on with regard to patient care?

415 / 1231

Under what highly specific condition does the emergency exception to the informed consent rule permit physicians to presume consent from an unconscious patient with no available information?

416 / 1231

When facing potential litigation against the organization. what action could a risk manager take?

417 / 1231

What action should a risk manager do upon learning of a potential documentation error?

418 / 1231

What action should a risk manager recommend to staff upon receipt of a subpoena for a patient's medical records?

419 / 1231

Which of the following is NOT considered individually identifiable health information?

420 / 1231

What does the Privacy Rule give patients the right to request?

421 / 1231

Which of the following federal agencies has the authority to enforce the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule?

422 / 1231

A risk professional needs to design a facility safety program that complies with the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA). Which of the following elements must be included in the Program?

423 / 1231

According to the Medicare regulations for Long-Term care, in order to improve and maintain overall quality of patient care in long-term care (LTC) facilities, initiatives should include:

424 / 1231

In the event of an unconscious patient with no available information, under what conditions can physicians assume consent for a procedure, according to the emergency exception to the informed consent rule?

425 / 1231

An organization's commitment to following recommended practices and guidelines as it relates to business and ethical practices falls under what program?

426 / 1231

The Privacy Rule gives the patients all but which one of the following

427 / 1231

What is NOT Individually Identifiable Information?

428 / 1231

Which of the following documents explains a healthcare organization's rules for releasing a patient's medical information?

429 / 1231

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA):

430 / 1231

What processes can a healthcare facility use to disclose patient health information without the patient's authorization based on the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

431 / 1231

According to HIPAA, which of the following disclosures are permitted without an individual's authorization and without granting the individual an opportunity to agree or object to the disclosure?

432 / 1231

Accidental destruction of a provider's medical record of a patient after that patient has brought suit against that provider is called

433 / 1231

It is important to protect the discoverability of incident reports. Which of the following have significant impact on whether the reports are discoverable?

434 / 1231

A risk professional is notified that a patient with a dog has just been admitted to a medical unit.To ensure compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), the hospital risk professional should ask the patient:

435 / 1231

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits an employer from asking about the existence, nature, or severity of a disability when?

436 / 1231

An employer declined to hire a qualified applicant otherwise, why?

437 / 1231

A risk professional learns of an incident where medical staff discussed a patient's information in front of the patient's family. This action is not covered under HIPAA except:

438 / 1231

According to HIPAA guidelines, what conditions are required for the exception of PHI to be shared for treatment?

439 / 1231

According to EMTALA, what type of information access regarding patients' medical information is permissible?

440 / 1231

What is the primary focus of the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA)?

441 / 1231

The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act established regulations regarding what aspects of clinical lab practices?

442 / 1231

To enhance the quality of a medical record, the risk manager should be vigilant in assessing the quality of medical record documentation.What should they do?

443 / 1231

During an interview, what would be appropriate for a supervisor to ask a candidate?

444 / 1231

Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, what question is appropriate to ask a person if a dog is brought to the facility and is said to be a service animal?

445 / 1231

Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, when is an employer typically permitted to ask about the nature or severity of a disability?

446 / 1231

Under Title III of the ADA, what is a public accommodation prohibited from doing?

447 / 1231

The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits discrimination based on disability in which of the following areas?

448 / 1231

Which of the following is included in the types of abuse to report?

449 / 1231

CAPTA is designed for what type of abuse reporting requirements?

450 / 1231

What survey frequency is generally conducted from CMS for resident care in long-term care facilities?

451 / 1231

Which of the following initiatives is most aligned with LTC requirements for improving patient care?

452 / 1231

According to Medicare regulations for Long-Term Care facilities, what are LTC laws primarily focused on?

453 / 1231

In what situation, according to the general emergency exception to the informed consent rule, can physicians assume an unconscious patient would provide consent for a procedure?

454 / 1231

A 50-year-old man receiving antibiotic therapy as an inpatient requires transfer due to a dramatically changed condition, developing a subdural hematoma requiring immediate neurosurgical intervention not available at the current facility. Despite extensive efforts to find a facility with neurosurgery capabilities, his transfer is delayed. Which of the following are EMTALA violations?

455 / 1231

Which of the following EMTALA obligations applies to an off-campus outpatient facility located one mile away from a main hospital?

456 / 1231

Changes to the federal EMTALA regulations that became effective in November 2003 include:

457 / 1231

After providing a medical screening exam, the Emergency Department physician calls the orthopedic surgeon on call. After a brief discussion, the ED physician requests that the surgeon come to the hospital to examine the patient and provide care. The surgeon refuses. Per CMS EMTALA guidelines, which of the following individuals should make the decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient?

458 / 1231

A patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of scrotal pain and a swollen testicle. The ultrasound examination is equivocal, and the emergency physician believes an on-site examination by the on-call urologist is necessary. The urologist's examination would be considered what under EMTALA?

459 / 1231

If a hospital cannot provide complete on-call coverage for a particular service represented by its medical staff, what action does EMTALA require?

460 / 1231

An Emergency Department must maintain a central log of everyone seeking emergent care. Such logs must be maintained by departments that:

461 / 1231

Under what circumstance does EMTALA allow a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening examination in the emergency services?

462 / 1231

A 36-week pregnant woman arrives at the emergency department with labor pains. She is sent directly to labor and delivery without registration or triage in the ED. Which statement accurately reflects EMTALA compliance in this situation?

463 / 1231

A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a fever and earache. After examination, the physician diagnoses otitis media, notes a supple neck, minimal temperature, and that the child is awake, happy and playful. The child is discharged with antibiotics. The next day, the child returns with meningitis and is severely brain-injured. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the hospital's EMTALA liability?

464 / 1231

Who has the primary responsibility for determining the initial emergency response level at the scene of an incident?

465 / 1231

A patient presents to a hospital's physical therapy department for an outpatient visit and develops chest pain during the session, requiring transfer to the emergency department. Under EMTALA regulations, is the hospital obligated to provide a medical screening examination and stabilization?

466 / 1231

A 34-year-old male patient presents to a rural hospital with head trauma following a tractor accident. A CT scan reveals an epidural bleed, but the hospital lacks neurosurgical services. The emergency physician contacts a regional referral center with a neurosurgical unit, where beds are available. However, the resident on call refuses the transfer. What is true regarding this scenario?

467 / 1231

Following a medical screening exam in the Emergency Department, an on-call orthopedic surgeon refuses to come to the hospital to examine the patient despite a request from the ED physician. According to CMS EMTALA guidelines, who is responsible for making the decision whether the on-call specialist must come to the ED to assess the patient?

468 / 1231

What action does the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) _require_ a hospital with emergency services to take first?

469 / 1231

What is the maximum civil monetary penalty for violating EMTALA regulations?

470 / 1231

Under EMTALA, what specific action are hospitals _required_ to perform regarding suspected improper patient transfers?

471 / 1231

If a hospital violates the SLA site license authority and does not report it within 72 hours, what is likely to occur?

472 / 1231

Associate the following topics with if they apply or do not apply to EMTALA:

473 / 1231

Connect these key terms regarding the Safety Medical Device Act with their definitions:

474 / 1231

Relate the following organizations to their role:

475 / 1231

Match each type of consent with its description:

476 / 1231

Match the following ethical principles with their corresponding descriptions:

477 / 1231

Match the following items related to Ethical Principles:

478 / 1231

Match each entity with the primary role:

479 / 1231

Match each entity with its role according to the The Patient Self-Determination Act

480 / 1231

Match the following terms related to surrogates of patients with the correct information:

481 / 1231

Match the ethical issue with the appropriate category:

482 / 1231

Match the following statutes related to patient's rights with the correct detail:

483 / 1231

Match the following types of Advance Directives correctly:

484 / 1231

Match the following scenarios with the appropriate moral obligation:

485 / 1231

Match the ethical principle with its description:

486 / 1231

Match the correct type of law with the correct description:

487 / 1231

Ethical rationalism posits that a health-care provider, when faced with a patient lacking cognitive capacity, should exclusively prioritize the directives established in the patient's advance directive, irrespective of the provider’s personal moral beliefs.

488 / 1231

The Safe Medical Device Act of 1990 necessitates that ambulatory surgical centers exclusively report adverse incidents involving permanently implantable devices directly to the FDA, thereby circumventing initial notification to the manufacturer, to expedite regulatory review.

489 / 1231

Informed consent mandates that physicians must disclose all potential risks and benefits to a patient before treatment except in scenarios involving family-focused consent processes which prioritize familial consent over full disclosure.

490 / 1231

Under the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA), a hospital is mandated to provide a medical screening examination (MSE) and stabilizing treatment within its capacity and capability once a potential emergency medical condition is reasonably believed to be present, regardless of the individual's capacity to afford medical care.

491 / 1231

Within the framework of the Health Care Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA), a hospital is obligated to grant a physician facing professional review proceedings no less than 90 days to furnish an informed synopsis of testimony at a subsequent impartial audition.

492 / 1231

Under EMTALA, patients in the ER can only proceed to a MSE, or medical screening exam, after an insurance preauthorization has been completed.

493 / 1231

The emergency exception bypasses the need for consent, but it still requires physicians to document the urgency and necessity of the care provided to the patient.

494 / 1231

Once initiated, advance directives are unchangeable and cannot be modified under any circumstances.

495 / 1231

A health care provider is obligated to deliver treatments that violate their own ethical or religious beliefs.

496 / 1231

Health care settings such as hospitals, rural health facilities, and nursing facilities fall under the scope of rules that apply to twenty different health care categories.

497 / 1231

A durable power of attorney for healthcare can not be authorized to any healthcare provider.

498 / 1231

Withholding and Withdrawing treatments such as ventilation are examples of ethics.

499 / 1231

A patient is able to change their mind about an advanced directive up until the very last minute

500 / 1231

Under the Patient Self Determination Act you simply need to comply with federal law regarding patient rights

501 / 1231

An ethics consultation requires a formal request and justification before a consult can be performed.

502 / 1231

An ethics committee's decisions are legally binding on a healthcare organization.

503 / 1231

A medical proxy needs to seek documented direction from the patient.

504 / 1231

Healthcare practitioners are **voluntary** reporters of child abuse.

505 / 1231

In most jurisdictions when a previously competent patient has a previously expressed wish to decline a treatment, it is acceptable to ignore the family's wishes, for medical care.

506 / 1231

A healthcare power of attorney and a living will are exactly the same in all US states.

507 / 1231

The central principle for advance directives is **autonomy**.

508 / 1231

A 'Do Not Resuscitate' (DNR) order always requires an advance directive as a precondition.

509 / 1231

A durable power of attorney can only be enacted once a patient has deceased.

510 / 1231

The Patient Self-Determination Act emphasizes patients' rights to consider treatment options, but does not touch on who carries it out.

511 / 1231

Beneficence, in healthcare ethics, relates to the ability to make decisions without undue influence.

512 / 1231

In healthcare, ethics can be impacted by law, medicine, and biotechnology.

513 / 1231

Administrative Codes are enacted by congress and approved by the president.

514 / 1231

Joint Commission accreditation is a mandatory requirement for all healthcare organizations.

515 / 1231

The assessment of data, as well as data Payment, are not key regulations and laws in healthcare.

516 / 1231

CPHQ certification is a qualification listed for Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi.

517 / 1231

A researcher is conducting a clinical trial with a novel gene therapy without guaranteeing to provide the potentially life-saving treatment once the trial has concluded. Under which ethical framework would this be evaluated within an IRB?

518 / 1231

How do Conditions of Participation (CoPs) promulgated by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) most directly impact the provision of culturally and linguistically appropriate healthcare services within participating institutions?

519 / 1231

Which of the following scenarios presents an ethical challenge most primarily adjudicated through the lens of distributive justice within a healthcare system exhibiting finite resources and escalating demand?

520 / 1231

Under what highly specific circumstance would an action taken against a physician's privileges at a hospital NOT be reportable to the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB), assuming all other general reporting criteria are met?

521 / 1231

How does the Health Care Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA) most directly influence the internal operations of a healthcare organization's peer review processes regarding practitioner competence and professional conduct?

522 / 1231

What precise set of conditions must simultaneously obtain for an emergency department, operating under the strictures of EMTALA, to transfer an unstable patient to another medical establishment without contravening the law?

523 / 1231

In the realm of Institutional Review Board (IRB) oversight of clinical trials, under what circumstance, is the implementation of a corrective action plan mandatorily escalated to federal regulatory bodies (e.g., OHRP, FDA) with the most urgent degree of immediacy?

524 / 1231

Under what nuanced condition, predicated upon an intricate interplay of ethical, legal, and institutional variables, may a healthcare provider ethically decline to execute a patient request, founded on firmly held cultural beliefs, for a treatment demonstrably proven to be medically efficacious?

525 / 1231

Within the framework of Medicare's Value-Based Purchasing (VBP) program, under what highly specific circumstance is a hospital's eligibility for incentive payments most significantly jeopardized, reflecting a multi-faceted failure encompassing clinical, administrative, and reporting shortcomings?

526 / 1231

In scenarios where a medical device has potentially malfunctioned resulting in patient harm, under which circumstances is a healthcare facility required to report specifically to the FDA, rather than solely to the device manufacturer?

527 / 1231

Which description is least related to the main tasks of Institutional Review Boards (IRBs)?

528 / 1231

According to guidelines, on what is the patient's right to create advance directives founded?

529 / 1231

What is a critical factor in determining the proper course of action with futile care?

530 / 1231

What is the **most** crucial action when a medical device may have contributed to a patient's death?

531 / 1231

In a healthcare setting, what constitutes an ethical concern stemming from biotechnology?

532 / 1231

Following surgery, Mr. Davis claimed negligence, and sought mediation that failed, so he then filed a state licensing complaint. What action by the patient would be reported to the NPDB?

533 / 1231

What aspect of a hospital's operations is LEAST addressed by CMS's Conditions of Participation?

534 / 1231

Which scenario involving a minor typically necessitates parental consent for treatment?

535 / 1231

To comply with the Health Care Quality Improvement Act, which action is **most** important to take?

536 / 1231

What action should a risk manager take **first** when a physician's actions are not aligned with policy?

537 / 1231

Which is required for QMP to decide correct decision making in patient’s care?

538 / 1231

To what entity must a hospital and/or medical device manufacturer report an adverse event under the SMDA?

539 / 1231

What area or a question the device to be to all the personnel it can help the time and any safety question?

540 / 1231

The goal of "Ad hock group" it have to be about deal with what medical aspects.

541 / 1231

What is the first key step should a medical provider perform in dealing with medical device safety?

542 / 1231

What are the reporting requirements for a serious injury under the Safe Medical Device Act (SMDA)?

543 / 1231

The FDA has main function for these areas bellow and what the products have to do

544 / 1231

What is the primary mission of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?

545 / 1231

The division of the Department of Health and Human Services that regulates prescription medication is:

546 / 1231

What law defines the conditions of Medicare and Medicaid?

547 / 1231

In which scenario do the HIPAA laws no longer apply?

548 / 1231

Failure to request information from the NPDB will result to the hospital

549 / 1231

What is the name of the federal reporting initiative that contains information on healthcare practitioners?

550 / 1231

Which law mandates that medical malpractice payments must be collected and reported to help protect patients?

551 / 1231

If a hospital is found to have far above average “HACs,” what action may that be taken by Medicare?

552 / 1231

What is the major goal of CMS's focus on “hospital-acquired conditions”HACs and its hospital “value based purchasing program”, VBP?

553 / 1231

All of the following represent a CMS Condition of Participation, **except**:

554 / 1231

Select the appropriate role that provides operational elements via the Medicare CoP for nursing services.

555 / 1231

Which of these is a focus area of Condition of Participation for hospitals?

556 / 1231

Which entities must adhere to the standards laid out in CMS Conditions of Participation?

557 / 1231

According to 2023 CMS updates, what's a primary goal of Condition of Participation(CoP) standards?

558 / 1231

All of the following are key requirements for EMTALA, **except**:

559 / 1231

Under EMTALA, stabilizing an individual with an emergency medical condition requires providing treatment within:

560 / 1231

Which statement is most correct when considering EMTALA?

561 / 1231

In the case of suspected, but unconfirmed, medical errors and potential harm, risk managers should:

562 / 1231

All of the following are core components of systemic decision-making, **except**:

563 / 1231

Decisions from the Ethics Committee are:

564 / 1231

Ethical decisions are primarily based on what while legal decisions are primarily based on what?

565 / 1231

Which of the following topics is **not** typically addressed in culturally appropriate care?

566 / 1231

An 84-year-old woman with severe Alzheimer's disease at your facility has lost the ability to communicate and did not appoint a proxy. Family members do not agree on care plans. Select the **most appropriate** next step.

567 / 1231

All of the following statements about advance directives are true, **except**:

568 / 1231

In cases of futile care, what's the proper course of action?

569 / 1231

What is the primary guidance in cases of futile care?

570 / 1231

Who acts on behalf of the patient when a patient cannot communicate decisions?

571 / 1231

In healthcare, who typically determines a patient's capacity to make decisions?

572 / 1231

Within the context of healthcare decision-making, what does 'capacity' refer to?

573 / 1231

Which is an example of life-sustaining treatment?

574 / 1231

Which of the following is NOT true regarding child abuse and neglect reporting?

575 / 1231

To whom does the Patient Self-Determination Act obligate entities to provide information regarding advance directives?

576 / 1231

Which of the following is NOT needed to enact a DNR?

577 / 1231

What is a key requirement for a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid?

578 / 1231

Under what condition can patient autonomy be set aside, according to the materials?

579 / 1231

What documents may be included in legally sound advance directives?

580 / 1231

What is a key feature of an advance directive?

581 / 1231

To what does the Patient Self-Determination Act NOT apply?

582 / 1231

What is a key element of the Patient Self-Determination Act?

583 / 1231

Which of the following actions demonstrates respecting a patient's moral obligations in healthcare?

584 / 1231

What does the ethical principle of non-maleficence primarily aim to do?

585 / 1231

Which ethical principle concerns the ability of patients to make decisions without undue influence?

586 / 1231

Which type of law involves regulations and rules implemented by a federal or state agency?

587 / 1231

Which of the following is **not** a category of key regulations and laws in healthcare?

588 / 1231

Match the Term with the correct definition in risk management:

589 / 1231

Match Types include with Professionals Credentialing:

590 / 1231

Associate Duty of Care with its corresponding duty of loyalty:

591 / 1231

Associate each risk treatment with the most applicable technique:

592 / 1231

Connect the definitions to the phases of Risk Management:

593 / 1231

Indicate the type of risk related to an organization, and the factor that impacts that type of risk:

594 / 1231

Associate the risk types with their definition relating to a healthcare organization's Enterprise Risk Management:

595 / 1231

Associate the major functional areas of risk management with their focus:

596 / 1231

Connect the risk exposure to its corresponding element:

597 / 1231

Match each element with the related element of a Risk Management Program (RMP):

598 / 1231

Match the concepts with their core ideas:

599 / 1231

Match the Credentialing and the Privileging with the correct action

600 / 1231

Associate each of the following to its main process:

601 / 1231

Associate each of the following techniques with its Risk Type.

602 / 1231

Match the stages of Risk Management with the common method/practices within that stage:

603 / 1231

Match the ERM Risk Domain to it's core concepts:

604 / 1231

Match the following statements of Risk Management and Risk Governance with the correct `Board Responsibility`:

605 / 1231

Match the following risk management activities with the appropriate phase in the risk management process based on commonly accepted ERM framworks:

606 / 1231

Match the risk exposure with the appropriate risk exposure categories:

607 / 1231

Match the following elements of a Risk Management Program (RMP) with their descriptions:

608 / 1231

For policies and procedures (P&Ps) related to risk management, including cross-references to similar policies on related subjects should be omitted due to regulatory constraints.

609 / 1231

When evaluating options in RM techniques, `Separation` is a means to increase the `likelihood` of potential losses.

610 / 1231

The implementation of a formal risk identification system obviates the necessity for informal risk identification methods due to its structured and comprehensive approach.

611 / 1231

During risk analysis, if a risk is deemed to have 'rare' likelihood and 'catastrophic' consequences, it invariably warrants the highest level of immediate mitigation, irrespective of cost considerations.

612 / 1231

In Occurrence Reporting, the 'treatment' is a specific example of a reportable incident.

613 / 1231

The assessment of organizational risk demands that all stakeholders are given equitable prospects for feedback, though their input need not be explicitly integrated.

614 / 1231

A healthcare trustee's duty of loyalty permits them to leverage inside information for personal financial advantage, provided it does not directly harm the healthcare entity.

615 / 1231

In the context of risk management, an organization's 'values' are typically defined by the potential financial exposure in a worst-case scenario.

616 / 1231

In enterprise risk management, 'Risk Assessment' is the final phase where all potential risks are quantified economically using Monte Carlo simulations.

617 / 1231

The implementation of risk management policies and procedures removes the need to maintain confidentiality of ethical breaches.

618 / 1231

It is unnecessary to quantify risk as long as you are able to identify the costs associated to it.

619 / 1231

Risk identification solely relies on traditional accident reports; employee interviews are not necessary.

620 / 1231

Maintain confidentiality and ethical issues as it relates to healthcare policy, procedures, and best practices, is not an important role of risk managers.

621 / 1231

An organization needs visibility and training on risk management, particularly in an orientation setting, to aid in organizational comittment.

622 / 1231

Information & communication, risk assessment, and monitoring are all components of enterprise risk management.

623 / 1231

According to HIPPA Law, health trustees are obligated to ensure all reasonable and necessary steps are implemented to take compliance with all applicable laws and regulations.

624 / 1231

The governing board's legal duty of loyalty requires the board to eliminate opportunities for personal financial gain using the entity's resources.

625 / 1231

A health care organization's risk management program should focus solely on financial risks.

626 / 1231

A risk manager's role includes identifying and applying risk-increasing techniques to an organization.

627 / 1231

A risk management plan needs updating only when significant organizational changes occur.

628 / 1231

Medical staff credentialing is primarily governed by CMS conditions of participation.

629 / 1231

A hospital-informed consent policy and procedure should provide clinical staff with methods for explaining the risks and benefits of specific Procedures.

630 / 1231

In assessing the impact of IT systems during a ransomware attack, monthly software updates are the highest priority.

631 / 1231

Legal and regulatory risks is managing the public image and reputation.

632 / 1231

The primary scope of a peer review is to increase profitability, not for providing quality of care.

633 / 1231

A 'sentinel event' refers to a minor near-miss incident that poses no real threat to patient safety.

634 / 1231

Effective implementation of a Risk Management (RM) program is possible without cooperation between RM professionals and managers.

635 / 1231

The scope of a risk management program always excludes employee-related risks like OSHA compliance.

636 / 1231

A consultant prosthodontic is a degree that Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi doesn't have.

637 / 1231

A duty of care means you must not compete with the entity.

638 / 1231

A hospital should not take all responsible steps to comply with laws and regulations.

639 / 1231

The terms 'incident reporting' and 'occurence reporting' are interchangable.

640 / 1231

Business continuity risks only pertain to financial losses and not to essential functions.

641 / 1231

A risk assessment matrix solely considers the frequency of an event, not the potential impact.

642 / 1231

One of the key attributes of a Risk Management Program (RMP) is visibility.

643 / 1231

A risk management plan is required to be updated tri-annually to maintain compliance.

644 / 1231

Risk management operations include claims processing, but not the development of a RM plan.

645 / 1231

According to risk management principles, it is acceptable to enrich yourself personally at the company's expense.

646 / 1231

A risk management plan does not need to be updated regularly.

647 / 1231

A risk management program's (RMP) primary purpose is to safeguard a Healthcare Organization's (HCO) assets against loss.

648 / 1231

When discussing business impact, the Board does not have a legal obligation to understand financial risks.

649 / 1231

If the Board is under the impression that the organisation is running under compliance and security protocols it is unnecessary to request confirmation.

650 / 1231

In the event of a catastrophic medical incident, the Risk Management Department are not responsible for liaising with the media.

651 / 1231

It is required that the healthcare organization check physician sanctions.

652 / 1231

If ransomware enters a system, a critical data finding involves the absence of a firewall between the network and hosted digital backup storage.

653 / 1231

A professional liability insurance policy with an exclusion for telemedicine necessarily requires the addition of a specific endorsement.

654 / 1231

A 'Physician Credentialing Policy' should not be developed amongst the Medical Staff and hospital administration.

655 / 1231

The hospital's credentialing policy should indicate whether medical staff individuals are required to secure malpractice insurance.

656 / 1231

Medical staff credentialing is governed only by federal mandates and is not variable across different states.

657 / 1231

Employee-related risks encompass elements like OSHA regulatory compliance.

658 / 1231

Risk control implementations do not require collaboration.

659 / 1231

There is no reason to follow the policy if it disrupts the routine workflow.

660 / 1231

Risk can not be quantified.

661 / 1231

An efficient Risk Management team avoids collaborating with other departments to promote a strong safety culture.

662 / 1231

Healthcare organizations must follow legislative regulatory mandates.

663 / 1231

Control activities are part of Enterprise Risk Management, as well as assessing risk.

664 / 1231

A risk assessment does not need to be performed in the event of a flood.

665 / 1231

Risk categories include patient care, financial and regulatory categories.

666 / 1231

The Risk Management Department should not be reviewing federal regulations.

667 / 1231

The Joint Commission does not provide standards related to patients’ safety.

668 / 1231

Risk mitigation and risk transferring is the same thing.

669 / 1231

A hospital’s Risk Management Department does need training and supervising staff.

670 / 1231

The element of 'communication' as an attribute of RM programs refers only to communication with external regulatory bodies.

671 / 1231

Business continuity plans prioritize essential functions and recovery strategies.

672 / 1231

Risk assessment in health care is solely based on the volume of patient complaints received.

673 / 1231

Risk financing involves determining the creditworthiness of patients.

674 / 1231

The assessment of 'values, perils and consequences of loss' is not applicable in risk management.

675 / 1231

Healthcare organizations are able to deny patient access to care based on their socioeconomic status.

676 / 1231

Healthcare organizations are required to report all medical errors to the Joint Commission, regardless of severity.

677 / 1231

The EMTALA regulation is specifically designed to outline rules and procedures for patient discharge.

678 / 1231

A hospital must provide staff education and training on risk management topics only upon initial hire.

679 / 1231

In the context of risk management, 'perils' refer to the values and ethics that guide an organization's decisions.

680 / 1231

Peer review is mandated by federal law to oversee quality of patient care and is not protected from discovery.

681 / 1231

Focused occurrence reporting' provides specific guidelines and examples of reportable incidents.

682 / 1231

An incident report is consistent with the routine care of a particular patient.

683 / 1231

Loss prevention focuses on decreasing the severity of potential losses.

684 / 1231

The Governing Board carries ultimate legal responsibility for all aspects of the healthcare entity.

685 / 1231

A risk register is used for identifying and treating risks.

686 / 1231

A risk management plan is not required to be updated regularly once established.

687 / 1231

The primary purpose of an RM program is to safeguard the HCO's assets against loss and reduce the impact of losses when they occur.

688 / 1231

If leadership wants to improve the patient safety culture within the organization what action can be achieved most effectively?

689 / 1231

What is the greatest value of a culture of transparency with reporting outcomes and process measures?

690 / 1231

A Risk Manager wants to improve the risk management program. Which of the following practices and processes creates the most sustainable program?

691 / 1231

What action is most appropriate for Risk Management in response to an increase of malpractice claims?

692 / 1231

How can Risk Management improve patient safety and reduce medical errors over time?

693 / 1231

Within the risk assessment matrix which would be considered the most dangerous outcome and require the most intervention?

694 / 1231

Healthcare risk management uses performance activity measures, outcome measures, and financial measures to assess the effectiveness of a Risk Management Program. Which measure below reflects financial measure?

695 / 1231

In the context of developing a robust patient safety culture, what advanced strategy most effectively fosters accountability at all levels of a healthcare organization?

696 / 1231

What considerations are most critical when developing outcome measures to assess the effectiveness of risk management activities related to patient safety in a large, integrated healthcare system?

697 / 1231

Which of the following reflects the highest level of sophistication in applying Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) within a complex hospital setting?

698 / 1231

Considering the complexities inherent in healthcare settings, what advanced analytical technique enables the most comprehensive evaluation of the interactions and dependencies among multiple risk factors, facilitating a deeper understanding of potential cascading failures?

699 / 1231

When implementing risk reduction strategies related to technical and managerial decisions, which approach most effectively balances the need for standardization with the flexibility required to adapt to evolving clinical practices and technological advancements?

700 / 1231

Considering the increasing interconnectedness of healthcare systems, which strategy would best address the systemic risks associated with supply chain disruptions and ensure continuity of critical services?

701 / 1231

What is the role of Bayesian networks in advancing decision-making processes related to risk management within a healthcare setting?

702 / 1231

How can healthcare facilities leverage actuarial science to improve their Risk Management program?

703 / 1231

Within a healthcare organization, what strategy represents the most advanced approach to integrating ethical considerations into the risk management program?

704 / 1231

In the context of incident reporting systems, what enhancement would most significantly improve the ability to discern systemic vulnerabilities and prevent future adverse events?

705 / 1231

Considering the complexities of healthcare regulatory compliance, which methodology would provide the most robust and adaptive framework for proactively identifying and mitigating emerging regulatory risks?

706 / 1231

When evaluating strategies for integrating risk management with healthcare organization governance, which approach most effectively ensures alignment with strategic objectives and accountability at all levels?

707 / 1231

In the context of risk financing within healthcare operations, which strategy exemplifies the most sophisticated approach to optimizing capital allocation while mitigating potential losses?

708 / 1231

Which situation would be considered the highest risk for an organization?

709 / 1231

What is the most difficult consideration about including flexibility into P&Ps and policies?

710 / 1231

Which statement outlines the appropriate way to evaluate and mitigate risk?

711 / 1231

How is duty of care balanced alongside medical staff's responsibility to provide competent and safe medical practices?

712 / 1231

Which is the most effective way to improve patient safety culture and reduce medical errors in the long term?

713 / 1231

In managing risks related to credentialing and privileging, how can healthcare organizations best address potential conflicts of interest among members of the credentialing committee?

714 / 1231

How should a hospital-informed consent policy and procedure address the management of patients who refuse recommended treatment due to religious beliefs or cultural practices?

715 / 1231

Considering the dual goals of protecting peer review actions and promoting quality improvement, what strategy best balances confidentiality with transparency?

716 / 1231

In the process of implementing and monitoring risk management policies and procedures, which strategy is most likely to foster a proactive and adaptive approach to risk mitigation?

717 / 1231

Given increasing concerns about data breaches and cybersecurity threats, what is the most strategic approach for integrating HAZMAT (Hazardous Materials) programs with broader healthcare safety programs?

718 / 1231

When distinguishing between 'occurrence reporting' and 'occurrence screening', what is the most critical factor that determines which method to use for a specific situation?

719 / 1231

How can healthcare organizations most effectively foster a culture of accountability within their Risk Management Program?

720 / 1231

What is the most effective approach for implementing risk reduction strategies to address technical and managerial decisions within a healthcare organization?

721 / 1231

How should healthcare facilities use performance activity measures, outcome measures, and financial measures to evaluate the effectiveness of a Risk Management Program?

722 / 1231

When structuring a Risk Management Operations program, what is the most effective strategy for balancing loss prevention, claims management, and risk financing to optimize resource allocation?

723 / 1231

In addressing risk exposure related to Values, Perils, and Consequence of Loss, how can a Risk Management Department most effectively integrate ethical considerations into its program?

724 / 1231

Considering the evolving landscape of healthcare regulations and accreditation standards, what methodology would best enable a Risk Management Department to maintain an up-to-date and effective risk management plan?

725 / 1231

When defining the authority and role of the Risk Management Department within a healthcare organization, which approach most effectively balances autonomy with accountability?

726 / 1231

Within the framework of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM), what is the most strategic approach for a healthcare organization to address risks associated with emerging technologies, such as artificial intelligence in diagnostics?

727 / 1231

When evaluating the scope of a Risk Management Program (RMP), what consideration reflects the highest level of strategic alignment with patient safety and organizational goals?

728 / 1231

Which scenario represents a 'very high risk' according to the Risk Assessment Matrix?

729 / 1231

What is the significance of 'Essential functions' in business continuity risks?

730 / 1231

What is the primary purpose of 'Focused Occurrence Reporting'?

731 / 1231

How does the Healthcare Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA) protect certain peer review actions?

732 / 1231

Which of these risks is typically addressed by HAZMAT programs?

733 / 1231

You are creating a Risk Assessment Matrix. You determine an event is `Likely` to occur, and the Consequence would be `Moderate`. Using the matrix shown, what is the risk score?

734 / 1231

What is the role of a risk manager in educating the board?

735 / 1231

Which of the following is true regarding incident reports?

736 / 1231

A series of minor issues or inconsistencies in a healthcare setting, which individually may seem insignificant, would be categorized how?

737 / 1231

In healthcare risk management, what is the primary aim of 'loss prevention and reduction'?

738 / 1231

What is the duty of loyalty for healthcare trustees?

739 / 1231

Which of the following best characterizes the 'Due Process' element in addressing risks related to credentialing and privileging?

740 / 1231

What is one of the key considerations when facilities choose an appropriate Risk Management Program?

741 / 1231

What is one of the most important functions of a hospital board, in relation to providing quality of patient care?

742 / 1231

What is a primary function of an 'occurrence reporting' system?

743 / 1231

How can healthcare facilities leverage education action plans to improve their Risk Management program?

744 / 1231

In the context of risk management, what is the goal of 'separation' as a risk treatment technique?

745 / 1231

Which statement best describes how a hospital maintains compliance with established policies and procedures?

746 / 1231

What is the key focus of Risk Management Operations?

747 / 1231

What is the primary objective of a Risk Management Program (RMP) in relation to Values, Perils, and Consequence of Loss?

748 / 1231

What are the important elements for Risk Identification Systems -- in Formal style?

749 / 1231

How can a Risk Assessment Matrix determine levels of risk?

750 / 1231

Why should you develop outcome measures to assess effectiveness of RM activities?

751 / 1231

Why is 'maintain confidentiality and ethical issues' relevant?

752 / 1231

What are the common strategies for dealing with identified risks?

753 / 1231

What should a hospital-informed consent policy and procedure indicate?

754 / 1231

Which statement is correct?

755 / 1231

What is the HCQIA established to protect regarding peer review?

756 / 1231

Of the healthcare safety programs, with which is 'HAZMAT' associated?

757 / 1231

What is the purpose of education action plans?

758 / 1231

What is the purpose of well-written guidelines for managing risks in Policies & Procedures (P&Ps)?

759 / 1231

What is the objective when a hospital implements & monitors?

760 / 1231

A hospital decides to close its pediatric unit due to financial constraints, transferring all pediatric patients to a nearby hospital. Which risk management technique is being applied?

761 / 1231

When prioritizing assessed risks, what should an initial risk analysis provide?

762 / 1231

How does 'occurrence reporting' differ from 'occurrence screening'?

763 / 1231

What is the purpose of incident reporting?

764 / 1231

What characterizes 'high-volume' events when identifying and analyzing loss exposure?

765 / 1231

A healthcare system experiences frequent data breaches that expose patient information. Which type of ERM risk is most directly highlighted by this situation?

766 / 1231

Which factor helps an organization select an appropriate Risk Management Program?

767 / 1231

What is the first step in a Risk Management Program, regarding risk exposure?

768 / 1231

How does the Risk Manager aid the board?

769 / 1231

What signifies the liability concern for board members as it relates to 'corporate' actions?

770 / 1231

What is the meaning of 'duty of care'?

771 / 1231

What is the legal duty for healthcare trustees?

772 / 1231

What is the main goal of including 'essential functions' in business continuity risks?

773 / 1231

What is the primary focus of managing employee-related risks in healthcare?

774 / 1231

Which of the following exemplifies a risk associated with medical staff?

775 / 1231

Which risk is an example of patient care-related risk?

776 / 1231

Which element falls under the scope of a Risk Management Program?

777 / 1231

Which of the following is a key attribute of a successful Risk Management Program?

778 / 1231

What is the purpose of risk reduction strategies in a Risk Management Program?

779 / 1231

Which of the following can evaluate RM program effectiveness?

780 / 1231

Which activity is essential when managing risk within a healthcare organization?

781 / 1231

What is the primary reason for having accurate and comprehensive job descriptions for risk management staff?

782 / 1231

Why is regularly updating a risk management plan important for healthcare organizations?

783 / 1231

Why is organizational commitment and support essential for a Risk Management Program (RMP)?

784 / 1231

Which element is most indicative of enterprise risk management?

785 / 1231

Which of the following best describes the role of a risk manager in healthcare operations?

786 / 1231

Match each type of Exposure of Healthcare Entities with a key aspect of loss mitigation

787 / 1231

Match the document type from the pre-trial procedures with the content that ought to be present:

788 / 1231

Match each stage of litigation management with its primary objective:

789 / 1231

Match the following elements to consider when selecting expert witnesses with their primary relevance to complex litigation management:

790 / 1231

Match each Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) method with its most defining characteristic:

791 / 1231

Match the following 'Legal Theories' with their appropriate description:

792 / 1231

Match the following 'Liability Areas' within Healthcare with a situation that would describe it:

793 / 1231

Match the following elements of 'Due Diligence' regarding financial processes with their appropriate next step:

794 / 1231

Match the following stages in the claims management process (as outlined in the 'new' model) with their correct description:

795 / 1231

Match the following elements of a claims management program with their appropriate description:

796 / 1231

Match the step with its description in defense firm performance:

797 / 1231

Match the actions that a risk manager can take to mitigate the negative impact of litigation stress on health care professionals:

798 / 1231

Match the type of liability exposure with the healthcare entity where it is most commonly seen:

799 / 1231

Match the legal theory with its correct description in healthcare claims:

800 / 1231

Match the claims management process step with its description:

801 / 1231

Match the following facts about a corporate to its impact.

802 / 1231

Match the following issues to a potential solution during a Due Diligence.

803 / 1231

Match the following items of a healthcare service to its common problem.

804 / 1231

Match the following list to its potential action to mitigate stress on employees.

805 / 1231

Match the phrase to its description for ADRs.

806 / 1231

Match the following elements of Claims File Management to its description:

807 / 1231

Match each formal vs informal system to its description:

808 / 1231

Match each term to its corresponding description within coverage determination:

809 / 1231

Match the following phrases during litigation to its appropriate step in procedure.

810 / 1231

Match the following terms liability determinations with its appropriate type.

811 / 1231

Match the following terms related to reporting with the appropriate legal requirements.

812 / 1231

Match the following document requirements to the document in a claim.

813 / 1231

Match the legal theory with its definition:

814 / 1231

Match the type of healthcare entity with its common liability exposure:

815 / 1231

Match the following steps for claims management in the correct order.

816 / 1231

The risk of the professional is required to retain a legal counsel is there is a claim made policy in place.

817 / 1231

Providing support through all phases of the litigation process *will not* mitigate negative effects, such as stress.

818 / 1231

A notification of claims is when an ER physician dumps a patient.

819 / 1231

The only advantage over a trial is the negotiation of the third party.

820 / 1231

A *speedy driver* hits a child while driving *without* headlights is a form of *Res Ispa Loquitur*.

821 / 1231

Insurance coverage information, as part of claim file management, is not relevant to insurers.

822 / 1231

Due diligence in litigation solely involves assessing the legal aspects of an organization.

823 / 1231

In claims management, a Demurrer motion is when the plaintiff requests to admit allegations of the defendant.

824 / 1231

In an Emergency Medical Service, false imprisonment includes restraining someone.

825 / 1231

In a case of apparent agency, privileges for physicians are NOT considered to be an independent contractor

826 / 1231

A hospital cannot be sued for corporate negligence.

827 / 1231

The insurer and the insured have the same responsibilities when handling lawsuits.

828 / 1231

Taxonomy is *not* relevant for benchmarking and loss runs.

829 / 1231

The *Respondeat Superior* doctrine solely applies to intentional torts committed by employees.

830 / 1231

A claim is best managed when reserves are set after sufficient data have been obtained.

831 / 1231

In *Res Ipsa Loquitur*, the injured person can't sue the employer for the full amount.

832 / 1231

Liability determination aims to identify the responsible party, regardless of liability type.

833 / 1231

'Loss Covered' refers to whether the cause of the incident is covered by the policy.

834 / 1231

General liability covers professional malpractice.

835 / 1231

The insurer always waives its rights while a claim is being investigated and defended.

836 / 1231

Under the principle of *Res Ipsa Loquitur*, the burden of proof shifts to the defendant.

837 / 1231

A 'Lawsuit' refers to informal settlement discussions outside of court.

838 / 1231

Analysis and classification of a claim involves using subjective opinions.

839 / 1231

A document checklist is not necessary when managing claims.

840 / 1231

The risk manager's role in claims is solely based on the organization's financial data.

841 / 1231

In claims management, 'Identification' is the final step in the process.

842 / 1231

The claims management program must have commercial insurance coverage.

843 / 1231

A claim is a formal notification seeking monetary damages for an alleged injury.

844 / 1231

If HIPAA applies, compliance with medical records may proceed regardless of the circumstances.

845 / 1231

In corporate liabilities , it is most reasonable to hire an orthopedic surgeon to explain to the lawyer involving breast care cancer.

846 / 1231

In the event that there is a subpoena, a lawyer knows the most so it should be directly passed with the lawyer rather than any action happening.

847 / 1231

A hospital is responsible even though they were not involved if the lawsuit involves a contracted doctor instead of employed.

848 / 1231

In the list of "four Ds, the damage death for an employee is the 'duty' phase.

849 / 1231

An 'unstructured process' in third party dispute resolution means that nobody is authorized to create documents.

850 / 1231

If there is an unintended surgical item in a patient, strict liability is automatically the result.

851 / 1231

If a healthcare enterprise receives a written demand for compensation, a risk professional needs to first analyze the situation.

852 / 1231

Integrated Delivery Systems (IDS) can cannot be held vicariously liable by anyone outside of contracts.

853 / 1231

If a provider is employed at a hospital, a patient and their family is authorized to sue a hospital even if they were not involved in the claim.

854 / 1231

The *only* role of a risk manager regarding outside counsel is ensuring the firm bills hourly and at or below an expected amount

855 / 1231

In any medical setting, a claim that results in a case will require a 'pre trial' procedure.

856 / 1231

It is not required to clarify reporting PCEs.

857 / 1231

The *only* essential element in assessing corporate negligence is determining whether the health facility was aware of similar past incidents

858 / 1231

A self-insured risk manager has major responsibility for their case.

859 / 1231

In investigation outside or outside, there is a need to get a written description of hippa in medical investigations.

860 / 1231

The final step in a lawsuit is always an agreed upon settlement.

861 / 1231

In the context of legal theories, 'strict liability' is typically the most relevant theory for cases involving retained surgical sponges.

862 / 1231

A claims-made insurance policy is triggered by an occurrence during the policy period.

863 / 1231

A hospital following defense counsel does not need to select experts witnesses for medical negligence

864 / 1231

The goal of due diligence is to complete legal and financial review of an organization.

865 / 1231

In claim management, healthcare entities face limited exposures, mainly related to medical malpractice.

866 / 1231

Corporation negligences cannot impact medical malpractice lawsuits.

867 / 1231

There is no difference between ostensible and apparent agency in a healthcare setting.

868 / 1231

Internal investigations are an optional part of most claims resolutions.

869 / 1231

'Vicarious liability' means imposing the same liability the employee has to another person.

870 / 1231

'Respondeat Superior' means an employer is never responsible for the acts of their employees.

871 / 1231

Claim file management involves the logical ordering and maintaining of all documents related to a claim.

872 / 1231

After a claim, setting reserves involves identifying the claimant's attorney.

873 / 1231

A goal of claim management is reducing negative impacts on a hospital's image.

874 / 1231

Internal investigations are optional in claims handling.

875 / 1231

An insurance policy has no impact on the claims management process.

876 / 1231

A systematic approach to claim management aims to increase the financial loss for a healthcare organization.

877 / 1231

A claim management program's success relies solely on the efficiency of its technology.

878 / 1231

A 'claim' is a formal demand for monetary damages due to an alleged injury.

879 / 1231

A risk manager's role is the same across different organizations, regardless of their insurance program.

880 / 1231

The 'identification' step in claims management involves assessing coverage and setting reserves.

881 / 1231

In a commercial insurance coverage, the facility always bears the responsibility for covering losses.

882 / 1231

The claims management process begins when an event occurs and concludes with the resolution of the claim.

883 / 1231

A claim always involves a formal lawsuit filed in court.

884 / 1231

You are helping the defense council select an expert witness in a case regarding alleged breast cancer misdiagnosis. What would it be the **ABSOLUTE BEST** action?

885 / 1231

To have the most effective claims management and to review claims and potentially prevent them, what do many organizations rely on?

886 / 1231

What is a subtle way that hospitals can be corporate negligent when thinking about staff physicians who lose staff privileges due to alcohol impairment?

887 / 1231

Considering that a systematic evaluation of a claim is essential, what's an intended outcome a healthcare organization should look for in a claims management program?

888 / 1231

During claim investigation, what is the MOST crucial consideration when using outside investigators, particularly with regards to potentially discoverable information?

889 / 1231

What factor most influences the extent to which a risk manager is involved in the actual claims management process?

890 / 1231

A surgery resident accidentally cuts the common bile duct during a laparoscopic procedure, which was the third such incident in the last six months at the facility. What organizational failures would MOST likely be considered when litigating **corporate negligence**?

891 / 1231

In the context of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR), what aspect of arbitration poses the MOST significant challenge for healthcare providers concerned with maintaining Standard of Care (SOC)?

892 / 1231

A hospital's security system malfunctions, resulting in unauthorized access to employee files, including sensitive medical information. Which of the following legal theories would be the **MOST directly relevant**?

893 / 1231

In a claims-made policy, what constitutes the MOST critical action for a healthcare facility upon receiving a demand letter, considering the potential implications for coverage?

894 / 1231

As an enterprise risk professional, you are tasked to assess the quality of external legal counsel during the litigation management process. Which metric offers the MOST insightful assessment of their efficacy beyond readily available litigation outcomes?

895 / 1231

An organization's risk manager observes a pattern of Emergency Medical Services (EMS) personnel deviating from established protocols due to resource constraints. A patient subsequently experiences harm. What is the MOST relevant legal theory?

896 / 1231

During the litigation process, plaintiffs' legal counsel requests the metadata associated with changes made to an electronic health record (EHR) after a Potential Compensable Event (PCE). The defense argues that the metadata is not subject to discovery due to privilege. Under what legal rationale would the defense prevail?

897 / 1231

A self-insured healthcare organization discovers a historical pattern of inadequate peer review processes stemming from poor taxonomy application, leading to delayed identification of systemic risks. How would a defense attorney leverage this discovery in a subsequent claim?

898 / 1231

In the event that a healthcare entity's actions result in the misinterpretation of diagnostic imaging, leading to delayed treatment and subsequent harm, which legal theory would MOST likely be central to the ensuing claim?

899 / 1231

Which Healthcare Providers should an expert expect to treat carefully through contracting?

900 / 1231

Within ADR (Alternative Dispute Resolution) what is something you would NOT consider?

901 / 1231

During the lawsuit process, match the correct order of events.

902 / 1231

If a lawsuit occurs, which Due Diligence option might prevent a legal issue from re-occuring?

903 / 1231

What would be NOT expected when thinking about EMS (Emergency Medical Services)?

904 / 1231

Why does Healthcare fail to report impairment to state licensing boards?

905 / 1231

Which of the following is the LEAST accurate statement regarding legal theories?

906 / 1231

During the 'analysis and classification' phase of claims management, what would indicate the strongest and most suitable methodology for determining the claim?

907 / 1231

In the setting of claim file management, what is the correct order when arranging documents?

908 / 1231

What is the most accurate interpretation of insurer's 'duty to defend' in the context of claim management and litigation?

909 / 1231

During claim file management, what is the primary rationale for meticulously organizing documentation in a logical order?

910 / 1231

What's the primary role of insurance coverage information within a claim file?

911 / 1231

Which statement best encapsulates the relationship between ‘benchmarking’ and claim taxonomy?

912 / 1231

In the context of legal claims, how does 'ostensible agency' most directly impact a healthcare facility?

913 / 1231

In what scenario would the 'corporate negligence' legal theory be most applicable?

914 / 1231

What is the most critical element in ensuring an effective claims investigation when using outside investigators?

915 / 1231

Which of the following actions would be most effective in supporting healthcare staff during a high-anxiety claim event?

916 / 1231

How would a risk manager's role differ between a self-insured healthcare organization and one that is commercially insured?

917 / 1231

What distinguishes a 'claim' from a 'potentially compensable event (PCE)' in healthcare risk management?

918 / 1231

What would define: document reciting all the allegations against defendant?

919 / 1231

In the lawsuit process, several things must occur. Which answer has the correct procedures (3)?

920 / 1231

Many processes or stages will assist in claims management. Which of the following statements aligns to such?

921 / 1231

Which statement accurately highlights the roles/responsibilities of healthcare facilities in medical malpractice claims?

922 / 1231

To completely stop losses when thinking about Due Diligence, what are the major components?

923 / 1231

Which outside specialist would you retain given a lawsuit for breast cancer?

924 / 1231

What is the **BEST** reaction when a medical staff reports they accidentally saw the name of a famous celebrity?

925 / 1231

What is the proper legal theory to use when hospitals are accused of negligence in retaining surgical sponges?

926 / 1231

When a healthcare facilities has been served with a demand, who is the FIRST to notify?

927 / 1231

What action can and should an enterprise risk professional do in reaction to their company suffering litigation?

928 / 1231

When organizations assess acquisitions in healthcare, what is one of key factors?

929 / 1231

If a doctor who is not directly employed seems to work for a hospital, they may be considered what?

930 / 1231

Which of the following examples would be best described as 'Negligence Per Se'?

931 / 1231

How hospitals not reporting physician impairment to state licensing boards could lead to what?

932 / 1231

In states where hospitals employ physicians, which legal doctrine could apply?

933 / 1231

What is the primary difference between 'Res Ipsa Loquitur' and 'Negligence per se'?

934 / 1231

In General Liability, what does 'Slander' refer to?

935 / 1231

According to insurers, what action may they take to validate accuracy of the claim?

936 / 1231

What is the role of 'indemnity' in 'reserving'?

937 / 1231

What is included in Claim File Management?

938 / 1231

During claims management, what does the ‘analysis and classification’ step primarily involve?

939 / 1231

In healthcare claims, what does the term ‘PCE’ refer to?

940 / 1231

Which of the following is the **LEAST** important factor to consider during claim investigation?

941 / 1231

What is the purpose of a documentation checklist in the claims management process?

942 / 1231

In claims management, what does ‘taxonomy’ aid in?

943 / 1231

Which is NOT a formal document typically produced during initial claims documentation?

944 / 1231

What is an example of an **informal** risk identification system?

945 / 1231

When using outside investigators during the investigation phase, what is extremely crucial?

946 / 1231

What is the intended outcome of a systematic approach to claims management?

947 / 1231

What constitutes a **formal** claim?

948 / 1231

During Trial, there has been an incident in which the jury acted inappropriately. What do you do? What do you dooo?

949 / 1231

What is the key factor that determines a risk manager's role in claims management?

950 / 1231

Why is the initial step of claims management so very crucial?

951 / 1231

In pre-trial precedures, what is a joinder?

952 / 1231

Identify the advantage to using ADRs as an alternative to trial.

953 / 1231

Which document involved in the pleading process commands the defendant appears before a judge?

954 / 1231

Which of the following is a core tenet of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)?

955 / 1231

What is the significance of maintaining a 'claim file'?

956 / 1231

During claims management, what is the role of 'analysis and classification'?

957 / 1231

In the context of healthcare claims, what does the term 'PCE' stand for?

958 / 1231

Which of the following best describes the role of 'reporting' in the claims management process?

959 / 1231

What is the primary goal of claims management strategies?

960 / 1231

According to the materials, what can a professional do to assist?

961 / 1231

A hospital receives a subpoena for some Medical Records. What is the correct course of action?

962 / 1231

You're a risk professional working with defense council on selecting an expert witness in which to defend yourself for alleged brease cancer. Which specialist would you retain?

963 / 1231

A hospital is being sued for the actions of one of its employees. That action resulted in hypoglycemia after a glucose level was dropped, and permanent brain damage. The hospital has already been deemed as vicariously liable. What now?

964 / 1231

What is the most relevant legal theory for not retaining a surgical sponge?

965 / 1231

Which of the following actions should the risk professional perform FIRST when a healthcare facility with a claims-made policy receives a request for demand?

966 / 1231

Which of the following is correct regarding Insurer and Insured roles?

967 / 1231

According to the material, what are the four major components of controlling losses to implement when involved with Due Diligence?

968 / 1231

Which scenario would most likely trigger a claim related to "Emergency Medical Services (EMS)"?

969 / 1231

What is the primary focus of legal theories related to *'exposures of healthcare entities'*?

970 / 1231

Which of the following scenarios is most applicable to the legal theory of *corporate negligence*?

971 / 1231

What is the key characteristic of ostensible agency?

972 / 1231

In legal theories, respondeat superior refers to:

973 / 1231

What is the legal definition of "Res Ipsa Loquitur?"

974 / 1231

What is the primary purpose of 'setting reserves' in claims management?

975 / 1231

In the context of claims management, what is 'taxonomy' used for?

976 / 1231

What action should a risk manager take if a self-insured entity faces a major claim?

977 / 1231

What documentation related to a claim is time-sensitive and is used to communicate representation?

978 / 1231

Which of the following is an element of formal risk assessment, versus informal risk assessment?

979 / 1231

Which activity is part of the 'Identification' stage in claims management?

980 / 1231

During the 'investigation' phase of claims management, what is a crucial consideration when using outside investigators?

981 / 1231

A systematic approach to claims management aims primarily to achieve which of the following?

982 / 1231

Which element is described as being essential for a successful claims management program?

983 / 1231

According to the material, what constitutes a claim?

984 / 1231

Which of the following best describes the role of a risk manager regarding insurance programs?

985 / 1231

What is the initial step in the claims management process?

986 / 1231

Match each element of documentation improvement process with the corresponding MOI standard:

987 / 1231

Match each MOI standard with the related description:

988 / 1231

Match each document/information with the relevant MOI standard:

989 / 1231

Match each MOI (Management of Information) standard with the method used to verify compliance:

990 / 1231

MOI 7.1 states that documentation improvement in the center is optional, based on available resources.

991 / 1231

If system failure occurs, MOI 6.2 allows that verbal instructions can be given in place of documented procedures.

992 / 1231

According to MOI 6.1, it is sufficient to only back up generated information annually as long as there is a detailed justification in the facility's policy.

993 / 1231

According to MOI 5.3, non-completed medical records can remain mixed with completed records if they are clearly marked with a bright color tag.

994 / 1231

MOI 5.1 requires that the dedicated and secure storage area for medical records must also be temperature controlled to preserve the integrity of paper records.

995 / 1231

If an unapproved abbreviation is widely understood within the facility, then its use would still satisfy MOI 4.4.

996 / 1231

MOI 4.3 allows for physical erasures in a medical record if the author initials the change and provides a brief explanation nearby.

997 / 1231

If the policy identifies the staff that must destroy medical records, it satisfies MOI 4.1.

998 / 1231

According to MOI 3.6, if patient allergies change frequently, it is permissible to document allergies in a separate, less secure attachment to their record.

999 / 1231

If medical information is sufficient to safely manage the patient, continuity of medical care is not a relevant concern in MOI 3.5.

1000 / 1231

According to MOI 3.3, the medical record's contents are to be arranged according to a non-standard process depending on the complexity of the patient history.

1001 / 1231

MOI 3.1 requires that the physical space where each patient is seen has a unique medical record number.

1002 / 1231

According to MOI 2.2, a list of approved abbreviations and symbols is distributed in all patient care areas *except* when dealing with complex cases.

1003 / 1231

MOI 2.1 states that staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that are consistent with the Ministry of Truth.

1004 / 1231

If different documents have retention times in agreement with the Ministry of Health, the MOI 1.7 requirements are satisfied.

1005 / 1231

MOI 1.5 states the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information.

1006 / 1231

If the plan includes the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting then it automatically satisfies MOI 1.3.

1007 / 1231

MOI 1.1 requires that the plan highlights how patient geographical information is shared among medical and administrative staff.

1008 / 1231

If the number of standards is 7, then the number of sub standards must always be 49 in the Management of Information chapter.

1009 / 1231

The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board focuses exclusively on inpatient healthcare institution accreditation.

1010 / 1231

According to MOI.6, the use of information technology requires appropriate policies and procedures. What is not addressed in the facility policy?

1011 / 1231

According to MOI.5.3 about non-completed medical records, what protocol should healthcare facilities implement?

1012 / 1231

According to MOI.4.3, what is the recommended approach for correcting errors made in a patient's medical record?

1013 / 1231

According to MOI.4.2, which of the following guidelines should all entries in a medical record adhere to?

1014 / 1231

According to MOI.4.1, why is it important to identify the category of staff allowed to write in the medical record?

1015 / 1231

According to MOI.4, leaders should develop a policy on the rules and regulation for writing patients’ medical records. What aspect of documentation does this primarily address?

1016 / 1231

According to MOI.3.6, what considerations should guide the documentation and display of patient allergies, prior adverse reactions, and chronic infections?

1017 / 1231

What is the primary purpose of including updated medical information in a patient's medical record, as emphasized in MOI.3.5?

1018 / 1231

According to MOI.3.4, what are the key patient demographics that should be included in a medical record?

1019 / 1231

According to MOI.3.3, how does a standardized approach to arranging the contents of medical records benefit healthcare providers and patients?

1020 / 1231

According to MOI.3.2, what would most likely indicate effective medical record keeping for patients?

1021 / 1231

According to MOI.3, what is the primary importance of each patient having a unique medical record?

1022 / 1231

According to MOI.2.2, what step can healthcare facilities take to promote standardization and clarity in clinical documentation?

1023 / 1231

According to MOI.2.1, why should staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that align with the Ministry of Health and other regulatory bodies' requirements?

1024 / 1231

According to MOI.2, what is the primary goal of developing standardized diagnosis codes, procedure codes, and symbols?

1025 / 1231

According to MOI.1.7, what is the primary reason for maintaining consistent document retention times in accordance with Ministry of Health rules and regulations?

1026 / 1231

According to MOI.1.6 , what is the primary consideration for ensuring the security of patient information?

1027 / 1231

According to MOI.1.5, what should healthcare facilities do to protect patient data and maintain confidentiality?

1028 / 1231

Why is it important to highlight the patient's personal and medical information when referring them to a higher center, according to MOI.1.4?

1029 / 1231

What is the primary purpose of including the Ministry of Health's required information in the reporting process, as stated in MOI.1.3?

1030 / 1231

According to MOI.1.2, how should healthcare leaders ensure effective communication of information to staff?

1031 / 1231

What is the primary goal of sharing information among staff, governmental, and non-governmental entities as defined in MOI.1?

1032 / 1231

In the context of healthcare accreditation, what is the significance of 'Policies and Procedures (P&P)'?

1033 / 1231

The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board for Accreditation of Healthcare Institutions emphasizes the importance of which aspect in healthcare facilities?

1034 / 1231

Which of the following represents the primary focus of Clinical Documentation Improvement (CDI) policies and procedures?

1035 / 1231

Which MOI standards relate to patients? Classify each item using the correct standard.:

1036 / 1231

Match the MOI standard relating to IT to the type of information required of it:

1037 / 1231

Match the types of leadership responsibilitiy standards to the following:

1038 / 1231

Match medical standards and documentation with the following:

1039 / 1231

Match the center tech standard with the measures they must oversee:

1040 / 1231

Match MOI standard per facility to the storage record measure:

1041 / 1231

Match the MOI standard, per facility, to the safety and compliance measure it represents:

1042 / 1231

Match each type of medical record from the following facilities to the correct MOI standard:

1043 / 1231

Match each of the following document reviews to the correct MOI standard:

1044 / 1231

Indicate the correct MOI standard by matching each of the following definitions:

1045 / 1231

Match each aspect of a unique medical record usage to the corresponding MOI standard:

1046 / 1231

Match each IT policy with the corresponding MOI standard:

1047 / 1231

Match each storage aspect of medical records to the corresponding MOI standard:

1048 / 1231

Match each aspect of facility policy compliance with its corresponding MOI standard:

1049 / 1231

Match each medical record error correction aspect to the corresponding MOI standard:

1050 / 1231

Match each component of patient record management to the corresponding MOI standard:

1051 / 1231

Match each element of documentation improvement process with the corresponding MOI standard:

1052 / 1231

Match each MOI standard with the related description:

1053 / 1231

Match each document/information with the relevant MOI standard:

1054 / 1231

Match each MOI (Management of Information) standard with the method used to verify compliance:

1055 / 1231

MOI 7.1 states that documentation improvement in the center is optional, based on available resources.

1056 / 1231

If system failure occurs, MOI 6.2 allows that verbal instructions can be given in place of documented procedures.

1057 / 1231

According to MOI 6.1, it is sufficient to only back up generated information annually as long as there is a detailed justification in the facility's policy.

1058 / 1231

According to MOI 5.3, non-completed medical records can remain mixed with completed records if they are clearly marked with a bright color tag.

1059 / 1231

MOI 5.1 requires that the dedicated and secure storage area for medical records must also be temperature controlled to preserve the integrity of paper records.

1060 / 1231

If an unapproved abbreviation is widely understood within the facility, then its use would still satisfy MOI 4.4.

1061 / 1231

MOI 4.3 allows for physical erasures in a medical record if the author initials the change and provides a brief explanation nearby.

1062 / 1231

If the policy identifies the staff that must destroy medical records, it satisfies MOI 4.1.

1063 / 1231

According to MOI 3.6, if patient allergies change frequently, it is permissible to document allergies in a separate, less secure attachment to their record.

1064 / 1231

If medical information is sufficient to safely manage the patient, continuity of medical care is not a relevant concern in MOI 3.5.

1065 / 1231

According to MOI 3.3, the medical record's contents are to be arranged according to a non-standard process depending on the complexity of the patient history.

1066 / 1231

MOI 3.1 requires that the physical space where each patient is seen has a unique medical record number.

1067 / 1231

According to MOI 2.2, a list of approved abbreviations and symbols is distributed in all patient care areas *except* when dealing with complex cases.

1068 / 1231

MOI 2.1 states that staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that are consistent with the Ministry of Truth.

1069 / 1231

If different documents have retention times in agreement with the Ministry of Health, the MOI 1.7 requirements are satisfied.

1070 / 1231

MOI 1.5 states the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information.

1071 / 1231

If the plan includes the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting then it automatically satisfies MOI 1.3.

1072 / 1231

MOI 1.1 requires that the plan highlights how patient geographical information is shared among medical and administrative staff.

1073 / 1231

If the number of standards is 7, then the number of sub standards must always be 49 in the Management of Information chapter.

1074 / 1231

The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board focuses exclusively on inpatient healthcare institution accreditation.

1075 / 1231

According to MOI.6, the use of information technology requires appropriate policies and procedures. What is not addressed in the facility policy?

1076 / 1231

According to MOI.5.3 about non-completed medical records, what protocol should healthcare facilities implement?

1077 / 1231

According to MOI.4.3, what is the recommended approach for correcting errors made in a patient's medical record?

1078 / 1231

According to MOI.4.2, which of the following guidelines should all entries in a medical record adhere to?

1079 / 1231

According to MOI.4.1, why is it important to identify the category of staff allowed to write in the medical record?

1080 / 1231

According to MOI.4, leaders should develop a policy on the rules and regulation for writing patients’ medical records. What aspect of documentation does this primarily address?

1081 / 1231

According to MOI.3.6, what considerations should guide the documentation and display of patient allergies, prior adverse reactions, and chronic infections?

1082 / 1231

What is the primary purpose of including updated medical information in a patient's medical record, as emphasized in MOI.3.5?

1083 / 1231

According to MOI.3.4, what are the key patient demographics that should be included in a medical record?

1084 / 1231

According to MOI.3.3, how does a standardized approach to arranging the contents of medical records benefit healthcare providers and patients?

1085 / 1231

According to MOI.3.2, what would most likely indicate effective medical record keeping for patients?

1086 / 1231

According to MOI.3, what is the primary importance of each patient having a unique medical record?

1087 / 1231

According to MOI.2.2, what step can healthcare facilities take to promote standardization and clarity in clinical documentation?

1088 / 1231

According to MOI.2.1, why should staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that align with the Ministry of Health and other regulatory bodies' requirements?

1089 / 1231

According to MOI.2, what is the primary goal of developing standardized diagnosis codes, procedure codes, and symbols?

1090 / 1231

According to MOI.1.7, what is the primary reason for maintaining consistent document retention times in accordance with Ministry of Health rules and regulations?

1091 / 1231

According to MOI.1.6 , what is the primary consideration for ensuring the security of patient information?

1092 / 1231

According to MOI.1.5, what should healthcare facilities do to protect patient data and maintain confidentiality?

1093 / 1231

Why is it important to highlight the patient's personal and medical information when referring them to a higher center, according to MOI.1.4?

1094 / 1231

What is the primary purpose of including the Ministry of Health's required information in the reporting process, as stated in MOI.1.3?

1095 / 1231

According to MOI.1.2, how should healthcare leaders ensure effective communication of information to staff?

1096 / 1231

What is the primary goal of sharing information among staff, governmental, and non-governmental entities as defined in MOI.1?

1097 / 1231

In the context of healthcare accreditation, what is the significance of 'Policies and Procedures (P&P)'?

1098 / 1231

The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board for Accreditation of Healthcare Institutions emphasizes the importance of which aspect in healthcare facilities?

1099 / 1231

Which of the following represents the primary focus of Clinical Documentation Improvement (CDI) policies and procedures?

1100 / 1231

Which MOI standards relate to patients? Classify each item using the correct standard.:

1101 / 1231

Match the MOI standard relating to IT to the type of information required of it:

1102 / 1231

Match the types of leadership responsibilitiy standards to the following:

1103 / 1231

Match medical standards and documentation with the following:

1104 / 1231

Match the center tech standard with the measures they must oversee:

1105 / 1231

Match MOI standard per facility to the storage record measure:

1106 / 1231

Match the MOI standard, per facility, to the safety and compliance measure it represents:

1107 / 1231

Match each type of medical record from the following facilities to the correct MOI standard:

1108 / 1231

Match each of the following document reviews to the correct MOI standard:

1109 / 1231

Indicate the correct MOI standard by matching each of the following definitions:

1110 / 1231

Match each aspect of a unique medical record usage to the corresponding MOI standard:

1111 / 1231

Match each IT policy with the corresponding MOI standard:

1112 / 1231

Match each storage aspect of medical records to the corresponding MOI standard:

1113 / 1231

Match each aspect of facility policy compliance with its corresponding MOI standard:

1114 / 1231

Match each medical record error correction aspect to the corresponding MOI standard:

1115 / 1231

Match each component of patient record management to the corresponding MOI standard:

1116 / 1231

Match each element of documentation improvement process with the corresponding MOI standard:

1117 / 1231

Match each MOI standard with the related description:

1118 / 1231

Match each document/information with the relevant MOI standard:

1119 / 1231

Match each MOI (Management of Information) standard with the method used to verify compliance:

1120 / 1231

MOI 7.1 states that documentation improvement in the center is optional, based on available resources.

1121 / 1231

If system failure occurs, MOI 6.2 allows that verbal instructions can be given in place of documented procedures.

1122 / 1231

According to MOI 6.1, it is sufficient to only back up generated information annually as long as there is a detailed justification in the facility's policy.

1123 / 1231

According to MOI 5.3, non-completed medical records can remain mixed with completed records if they are clearly marked with a bright color tag.

1124 / 1231

MOI 5.1 requires that the dedicated and secure storage area for medical records must also be temperature controlled to preserve the integrity of paper records.

1125 / 1231

If an unapproved abbreviation is widely understood within the facility, then its use would still satisfy MOI 4.4.

1126 / 1231

MOI 4.3 allows for physical erasures in a medical record if the author initials the change and provides a brief explanation nearby.

1127 / 1231

If the policy identifies the staff that must destroy medical records, it satisfies MOI 4.1.

1128 / 1231

According to MOI 3.6, if patient allergies change frequently, it is permissible to document allergies in a separate, less secure attachment to their record.

1129 / 1231

If medical information is sufficient to safely manage the patient, continuity of medical care is not a relevant concern in MOI 3.5.

1130 / 1231

According to MOI 3.3, the medical record's contents are to be arranged according to a non-standard process depending on the complexity of the patient history.

1131 / 1231

MOI 3.1 requires that the physical space where each patient is seen has a unique medical record number.

1132 / 1231

According to MOI 2.2, a list of approved abbreviations and symbols is distributed in all patient care areas *except* when dealing with complex cases.

1133 / 1231

MOI 2.1 states that staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that are consistent with the Ministry of Truth.

1134 / 1231

If different documents have retention times in agreement with the Ministry of Health, the MOI 1.7 requirements are satisfied.

1135 / 1231

MOI 1.5 states the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information.

1136 / 1231

If the plan includes the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting then it automatically satisfies MOI 1.3.

1137 / 1231

MOI 1.1 requires that the plan highlights how patient geographical information is shared among medical and administrative staff.

1138 / 1231

If the number of standards is 7, then the number of sub standards must always be 49 in the Management of Information chapter.

1139 / 1231

The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board focuses exclusively on inpatient healthcare institution accreditation.

1140 / 1231

According to MOI.6, the use of information technology requires appropriate policies and procedures. What is not addressed in the facility policy?

1141 / 1231

According to MOI.5.3 about non-completed medical records, what protocol should healthcare facilities implement?

1142 / 1231

According to MOI.4.3, what is the recommended approach for correcting errors made in a patient's medical record?