اختبار (CPHRM) الاعداد لاختبار الممارس المعتمد في إدارة مخاطر الرعاية الصحية 1 / 1231 Match the risk mitigation technique with its MOST accurate application within a healthcare setting: Risk Avoidance = Prohibiting a high-risk surgical procedure that, while potentially life-saving, presents an unacceptably high probability of severe, irreversible complications. Loss Prevention = Implementing rigorous protocols for medication reconciliation to minimize the incidence of adverse drug interactions and prescription errors. Risk Transfer = Securing medical professional liability insurance to deflect the economic repercussions of medical negligence claims. Loss Reduction = Deploying rapid-response teams skilled in cardiopulmonary resuscitation to diminish the morbidity associated with cardiac arrests in the inpatient unit. Effective risk control requires the judicious application of an intertwined armamentarium of proactive and reactive tactics. 2 / 1231 Match each term with its corresponding legal or regulatory context relevant to insurance operations: Admitted Insurer = An insurer sanctioned to operate within a specific jurisdiction, governed by that locale’s solvency standards and consumer protection statutes. Non-admitted Insurer = An insurer authorized to furnish coverage in a jurisdiction without being formally licensed there, typically for specialized or hard-to-place risks. Surplus Lines Market = A market designated for risks unable to procure coverage from admitted insurers, thereby accessing non-admitted carriers under stringent parameters. Reinsurance = A mechanism by which insurers transfer a segment of their risk to another insurer, enabling risk distribution and amplified underwriting capacity. Operating compliantly hinges upon a robust comprehension of the regulatory and legislative milieu within which risk transfer instruments function. 3 / 1231 Match the appropriate element with its correct description pertaining to insurance policy construction: Declarations Page = The section that delineates key policy components such as the named insured, policy duration, coverage limitations, and applicable deductibles. Insuring Agreement = The core contractual provision wherein the insurer pledges to indemnify the insured for covered losses subject to policy terms and conditions. Conditions = The stipulated duties and prerogatives vested in both the insured (e.g., notifications) and the insurer (e.g., subrogation) for proper policy administration. Exclusions = The explicit enumeration of risk categories (e.g., acts of war) or event types that are expressly outside of the policy’s protective aegis. A granular familiarity with policy architecture enables astute risk managers to discern coverage interstices. 4 / 1231 Match each risk financing technique with the appropriate characteristic: Self-Insurance = Optimal for organizations with predictive and stable loss histories, enabling assumption of risk and operational control. Captive Insurance = Offers bespoke coverage, risk management integration, and potential profit retention, but demands substantial capital and regulatory navigation. Large Deductible Programs = Transfers the bulk of risk while retaining a substantial first-dollar obligation, incentivizing rigorous loss control. Risk Retention Groups (RRGs) = Provides liability coverage for similar or related businesses, allowing member companies to manage shared liability exposure collectively. Selecting the opportune risk financing approach necessitates a meticulous analysis of the organization’s risk profile and fiscal capacities. 5 / 1231 Match the term with its precise definition within the context of retrospective insurance rating: Incurred Losses = The total of paid losses and outstanding reserves directly attributable to the insured during the policy term, often inclusive of allocated loss adjustment expenses. Ultimate Net Loss = The total sum the insured is obligated to pay, encompassing paid losses, loss adjustment expenses, and potentially a component for incurred but not reported (IBNR) losses, subject to policy limits. Stabilization Factor = A numerical value used to modulate or limit the retrospective premium adjustment, mitigating extreme premium fluctuations due to unusually high or low loss experiences. Retrospective Premium = The final premium amount determined at the close of the retrospective rating period, calculated using a formula that considers the basic premium, converted losses, and the stabilization factor. A deep understanding of retrospective rating mechanisms is crucial for risk managers and insurance professionals seeking to optimize coverage and cost. 6 / 1231 Help choose a various reason in why your organization isn't successful Lack of the capacity to handle a situation: is common = when the people aren't strong enough.. Not best with for small organizational management:: = If we aren't able to follow it's steps to work. Not easy to find a suitable coverage with insurance.: = Not everyone is able to meet the needs to fit a criteria. If the renewal wasn't in order for the contracts: = then you're more likely have errors happen. With a well rounded and managed selection of people helping your business, you're likely to manage it well. 7 / 1231 Couple financial risks, is important in understanding what is is coming..:? Cost of the risk: = Budget for each patient encounter.. The volume (losses): = what is estimated at every loss within the revenue. Reinsurance purchased by organizations: = how much is insurance responsible, for each claim.. The insurance purchased for organizations.: = how much each item should be within per dollar to dollar payout... . Understanding the relationship between various losses, we can understand the various aspects which you can adjust in how the organization can mitigate the risk. . . 8 / 1231 Combine key components of reporting for high volume reporting where more is needed to track.. Demographic information = What was the event described. Facility related information = Where was it exactly did it happen. challenges = Who did it happened to,. The process information = Written steps to help the team understand the steps in preventing it again This step isn't difficult but a procedure in tracking the patterns in areas within the industry. . 9 / 1231 Combine the various steps where the losses can be determined to be managed and understood Identify the loss exposure (Step 1/3): = Can the organization loss revenue at each time. Analyze the loss exposure (Step 2/3): = The steps on how to mitigate the steps can be determined.. Look into the prevention of losses (Step 3/3): = A formal procedure in what to to stop a hazard from happening on property to their stakeholders,. Develop standard of duty (Step 3/3): = What needs to be done right to have everyone comply. Following the legal process in the healthcare settings is important in preventing losses in revenue. 10 / 1231 Match the following terms used in claims to their best suited description Review policy definitions(claims) = Understanding where the claim states that the results stem from.. Reporting Date (claims) = When can you file you claim per say what's acceptable within the policy contract.. The Date of loss (claims) = A policy with a coverage period during when when incidents happened Consult Insurance policies(claims) = Understanding where are you able understand your claims information Errors can happen anywhere and can even be prevented, but you have to be properly document the process 11 / 1231 12 / 1231 13 / 1231 Match up the following terms used for "Due Diligence", to avoid fraud and abuse claims: Collaborating relationships = A process in which leaders in the organization help to share risks across departments. Medical record requests = A audit to find the areas where errors occurred Standardized surveys and questionnaires = A method in which staff is expected to provide consistent feedback for management. Hotline or grapevine = A method in which you receive internal or external communications about concerns. Prevent errors related with leadership to promote financial responsibility in the healthcare business 14 / 1231 Match the following financial ratios to better make informed choice for best rates: Large organizations = Large organization with the strong market leadership can make wise choices for self funding or stop loss. Organizations with more risk transfer with loss control = Organization that is willing to take on less risk has better position to be a better risk selection. Smaller organizations with less experience = Require more third-party experts. Health systems with integrated medical leadership = Able to take better financial risks. Financial strength can help you choose to be able to control your costs for years to come. 15 / 1231 Match the words used to describe the purpose of having an insurance policy to its description: To Indemnify = To provide a compensation To hold Harmless = Not to be liable for the loss To Assure = For reassurance against the results To Guarantee = Assuring the party has proper coverage. Each word describes an important component against the financial loss. 16 / 1231 Match following types of financial instruments listed to their definitions: Contract Bonds = Used for full amount of risk transferred Federal surety bonds = Required by the federal government License and permit bonds = Ensure operation adheres to requirements Public official bonds = Guarantee government officials perform to standards Bonds are used to ensure proper financial controls occur. 17 / 1231 Match the workers compensation to the financial benefit that the affected employee has : Workers' compensation = Health benefits Short term disability = benefits paid for six months or less Long term disability = benefits that paid six or greater months Medicare Coverage = Provides services for medical coverage Make sure that you've chosen the proper amount of benefit to provide to staff in your organization. 18 / 1231 Match types of Risk Retention techniques: Current expensing of losses = Paying for incurred losses as they occur from normal operating funds. Unfunded loss reserve = An accounting entry that shows a potential liability. Funded loss reserve = Setting aside cash, securities, or other liquid assets in a designated fund. Borrowed funds = Using debt to cover losses. It is important to understand the breadth of risk retention techniques. 19 / 1231 Match the risk financing techniques with their description: Risk Retention = Organization retains financial responsibility for losses. Risk Transfer = Organization shifts financial responsibility to another party. Insurance = Transferring risk from financial loss to insurance company Non-Insurance = Hold harmless agreements By determining your aversion to risk, you can create an approach that meets your needs. 20 / 1231 Match the following insurance policy types to its description: Occurrence = Coverage for claims that occur during the policy, regardless of when the claim is filed. Claims-made = Coverage for a claim occurring AND reported while the policy is in effect. Retroactive = Used in concert with a claims-made policy Nose = Period of time between an insurer's retroactive date and the current policy period. Occurrence Coverage covers incidents, regardless of when you file a claim. 21 / 1231 Match the roles involved in insurance purchasing with their responsibility: Agent = Represents one or more insurance carriers Broker = Represents the purchaser (insured organization) Insurer = Financial firm who takes on the risk for a set price Underwriter = Analyzes risk and determines pricing Knowing the roles of these individuals can assist in making more sound choices when determining your insurance needs. 22 / 1231 Match the following 'levels' of excess coverage with their descriptions: Government = Losses at 100% of nominal value, as in the case of national flood insurance Excess Layer = Shared between the Government and multiple external insurers Working Layer = The first amount of loss covered by commercial insurance if any Primary = Losses at 0% of nominal value Excess insurance layers sit over specific primary insurance to afford additional limits of liability. 23 / 1231 Match the characteristics of hard and soft insurance markets: Hard Market = Stricter Underwriting Standards, Reduced Capacity, Higher Premiums Soft Market = Easier Underwriting, Increased Capacity, Lower Premiums Competition (Hard) = Fewer Competitors Competition (Soft) = More Competitors Insurance market conditions can significantly affect coverage availability and cost. 24 / 1231 Match the insurance terms with their appropriate definition: Deductible = The amount the policyholder pays before insurance covers the rest Premium = The cost of the insurance coverage Policy Limit = The maximum amount the insurance company will pay Exclusion = Specific conditions or circumstances for which the policy will not provide coverage Understanding these terms helps in making informed decisions about insurance coverage. 25 / 1231 Match Risk Categories (ERM) to their descriptions: Strategic = Overall direction and competitive advantage of the organization Financial = Risks impacting the financial health and stability Legal and Regulatory = Compliance with laws and regulations Operational = Day-to-day activities and processes Categorizing risks helps organizations manage them more effectively. 26 / 1231 Match the following aspects of traditional risk management to modern Enterprise Risk Management (ERM): Focus = Reactive (TRM) vs. Proactive (ERM) Outcome = Asset preservation (TRM) vs. Value creation (ERM) Breadth/Depth = Departmental silos (TRM) vs. Organizational-wide (ERM) Engagement = Board/C-Suite (TRM) vs. Clinician/Staff (ERM) ERM takes a broader, more integrated approach compared to traditional risk management. 27 / 1231 Match the following risk management terms with their definitions: Risk Avoidance = Never undertaking a risk Loss Prevention = Reducing the frequency and possibility of losses Loss Reduction = Reducing the severity of losses that occur Segregation = Separation or duplication of loss exposure Understanding risk control techniques is crucial for minimizing potential losses and protecting organizational assets. 28 / 1231 There are four important aspects to any definition of Risk Management: Risk Indifference; Risk Appetite; Risk Evaluation; and Risk Monitoring. True False There are four important aspects to any definition of Risk Management: Risk Identification, Risk Assessment, Risk Evaluation, and Risk Monitoring. 29 / 1231 From the point of view of minimizing losses then it's best that organizations should take a reactive approach with Traditional Risk management. True False It is best to anticipate incidents before they occur and prevent them happening in the first instance. By contrast, traditional risk management doesn't always act in this way. 30 / 1231 Operational risk invariably relates to risks from workplace safety alone. True False Operational risks are multi faceted. Including staff leadership and how well a healthcare organization is run. It's not uniquely workplace safety related. 31 / 1231 In insurance contracts, there is no relationship to third-party contracts. True False A 'hold harmless agreement' which transfers liability to other parties for damages is a common clause in a contact. This helps to minimize the overall risk. 32 / 1231 Regarding insurance purchasing, agents invariably represent only the purchaser, advocating exclusively for their interests in coverage and pricing. True False An insurance agent represents an insurance provider. Brokers are legally obligated to represent the purchaser. This means insurance agents need to balance the interest of the insurer and the purchaser. 33 / 1231 In determining the cost of risk, financial auditing expenses are classified uniquely under 'hazard' risks, precluding their allocation to operational or strategic risk assessments. True False Financial auditing could be hazard or operational. But could form part of a risk assessment and so might also be strategic. So it's definitely not exclusively 'hazard' risks. 34 / 1231 Under a 'claims-made' insurance policy, coverage is triggered simply by the occurrence of the insured incident, irrespective of when the claim is actually reported to the insurer. True False Claims-made means that the policy covers claims that are made during the term of the policy. The incident must both happen and be reported to the insurer during the policy term. 35 / 1231 The 'retention ratio' in risk financing techniques invariably entails the complete transfer of financial responsibility to a third-party insurer, nullifying any direct financial burden on the insured entity. True False Risk retention implies the opposite. It indicates an acceptance of some level of financial or other responsibility for potential losses. Risk retention can take many forms, such as deductibles, self-insurance or no insurance. 36 / 1231 In traditional risk management, the assessment of risks heavily weighs speculative gains over potential losses, focusing predominantly on opportunities for financial upside. True False Traditional risk management focuses predominantly on protecting financial resources and reputation. More specifically, avoiding and mitigating loses. By contrast, enterprise risk management also seeks opportunities. 37 / 1231 Enterprise Risk Management's primary objective is to enhance the volatility of an organization's strategic planning, disregarding the interconnectedness of risks and their potential synergistic effects. True False ERM aims to holistically address risk, seeking to reduce (not enhance) volatility and recognizing interrelated and synergistic risks. This allows for more robust strategic planning and organizational resilience. 38 / 1231 Actuaries are experts specialized in evaluating risk, but are not generally consulted on insurance pricing. True False Actuaries provide information about risk and dollar rates relating to these events, which all go hand in hand. 39 / 1231 Once an insurance policy is in place, the premiums cannot be changed, even with an increase in risk. True False The cost and monthly premium is calculated depending on how high one takes the risk. 40 / 1231 It is not important to use different types of financial and insurance regulation. True False Having different types of resources, you have more financial and regulatory power. 41 / 1231 It is more safe to be audited in certain risk rather than not at all. True False Being ethical and transparent about medical records to prevent further lawsuits to occur. 42 / 1231 It's common practice to utilize an older company, from sometime in the 1970s, for financial protection. True False 1970s indicates where the practice of financial management was. 43 / 1231 The overall number rating is more important if an organization is in-prevention or non preventable risk. True False It is important to rank risk. 44 / 1231 Having all C-suite at an organization with no prior knowledge in risk management decisions allows for a more diverse risk. True False Need experience executives. 45 / 1231 It is more important to evaluate a broker than the actual insurance policy True False It is equally important because they are both critical. 46 / 1231 It is crucial for insurance departments to get licensed to make claims True False Licensure process is for insurance to approve business and company operation. 47 / 1231 There is no need for retroactive date when coverage is claims made. True False When there is effective period for date of coverage for claims-made. 48 / 1231 A key advantage of a 'conceptual proposal' is the speed. Using the conceptual approach will generate, overall, faster results and more streamlined responses. True False The text indicates that in a conceptual approach factors _other_ than cost are brought into play. 49 / 1231 In the context of insurance, 'Incurred But Not Reported' (IBNR) refers to losses related to property damage. True False IBNR refers to claims that have occurred but have not yet been reported to the insurance company. It is not directly related or relegated to property damage. 50 / 1231 The data listed, does _not_, generally need to be in both actuaries, claims, finance, and the legal department; instead, the claim department is supposed to receive that information. True False In general, actuaries work close with those of claim, finance or legal department. 51 / 1231 A key element of a 'market proposal' for insurance purchasing is that broker selection depends primarily on cost and services, rather than broker experience. True False In a more straight forward (market) approach, the risk management would evaluate cost and service proposals, but likely not evaluate the broker's background otherwise. 52 / 1231 The "stop-loss" method is designed to determine what point of cost containment provides maximal value, at no cost, and with high specificity. True False There was no indication at when stop-loss should be used, or that "stop-loss" includes determination maximal specificity at no cost. 53 / 1231 Risk management is a static process that does not require continuous monitoring or updates. True False Effective risk management involves continuous monitoring, evaluation, and adaptation of strategies to address evolving risks. 54 / 1231 Operational risks are primarily related to external factors like market competition. True False Operational risks stem from internal processes, systems, and human factors within the organization, rather than external market forces. 55 / 1231 A self-insurance trust provides more flexible spending options for funds compared to other arrangements. True False Self-insurance trusts lack flexibility, designating funds soley for a the paying of losses. 56 / 1231 To obtain insights into an organization's total cost of risk, it is unnecessary to consider uninsured losses. True False Uninsured losses are an important component when calculating total cost of risk. 57 / 1231 In a 'claims-made' insurance policy, coverage is determined solely by when the incident occurred, regardless of when the claim is reported. True False With the claim made approach, the claim must be reported, in addition to other requirements. 58 / 1231 ISO 31000 is explicitly mentioned as a required compliance standard for healthcare risk management in the provided materials. True False While ISO 31000 is a recognized standard for risk management, its explicit requirement for healthcare organizations is not mentioned. 59 / 1231 A company can transfer the financial burden but NOT necessarily the ultimate legal responsibility for losses. True False Organization can transfer the financial burden of losses but not necessarily the ultimate legal responsibility for losses 60 / 1231 Risk Control involves addressing financial losses after they occur. True False Risk Control: prevent losses before occur, reduce severity if occur Risk Financing: manages financial aspect of loss after it occurs 61 / 1231 In risk management, 'insurance risk' refers to the potential harm a company could suffer due to fluctuating insurance rates. True False The text indicates that strict risk avoidance philosophy is more limited in focus and reflective of insurance risk, regarding the minimisation of potential financial loss. 62 / 1231 Risk management is primarily handled by a single department within an organization. True False Effective risk management requires the involvement of various departments and levels within an organization, not just a single department. 63 / 1231 A key goal of enterprise risk management is to increase uncertainty to promote innovation. True False Enterprise risk management seeks to reduce uncertainty and process variability, in order to promote patient safety. 64 / 1231 An insurance policy's exclusions define what the policy _will_ cover under specific circumstances. True False Exclusions define what the insurer _will not_ cover. They outline situations or events that are not protected under the policy. 65 / 1231 Strategic risks, unlike financial risks, are considered outside the scope of Enterprise Risk Management. True False Enterprise Risk Management is supposed to include risk categories such as _strategic_, financial, legal and regularity, operational, hazard, as well as others. 66 / 1231 The overarching goal of modern risk management is to provide the least amount of protection, thus maximizing profits at the expense of patient safety. True False While financial considerations are a factor, modern risk management is focused on prevention, mitigating negative consequences to minimize the adverse effects of accidental losses upon an organization. 67 / 1231 Traditional risk management encourages open communication with patients and their families regarding findings after an adverse event. True False Traditional risk management was described as keeping 'patients in the dark' about risk management and occurrence reporting. It stated to 'be vague about findings'. 68 / 1231 A 'hard' insurance market is defined by easily accessible and affordable coverage options. True False Hard markets are characterized by stricter underwriting standards, increased premiums and less available liability converge. 69 / 1231 An insurance policy's 'declarations page' typically includes the insured's claims history. True False The declarations page primarily outlines policy details like the insured's name, covered items, and policy limits—not claims history. 70 / 1231 A 'potentially compensable event' (PCE) is an occurrence that is guaranteed to result in a lawsuit. True False A potentially compensable event is one that _might_ lead to a lawsuit or claim, but it is not a certainty. 71 / 1231 In the context of risk management, 'transfer' refers to shifting the financial burden of risk to another party. True False Risk transfer involves strategies such as insurance to pass the financial responsibility of potential losses to another entity. 72 / 1231 Incident reporting should focus solely on serious occurrences, ignoring minor events. True False Incident reporting includes and require all safety incidents to be reported, not just serious ones, to identify potential risks and improve safety measures. 73 / 1231 The ultimate purpose of Risk Management is to eliminate all potential harm. True False Harm is defined as unintended physical injury resulting from or contributed to by medical car that requires additional monitoring, treatment, or hospitalization, or that result in death. 74 / 1231 Traditional Risk Management (TRM) and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) are essentially the same thing. True False TRM and ERM differ significantly, with ERM taking a more holistic and proactive approach compared to TRM's reactive focus. 75 / 1231 Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) seeks to manage risks across the entire organization. True False ERM is defined as an approach for addressing risk from all sources across and beyond the organization. 76 / 1231 According to the presentation, strategic planning is not within the scope of Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi's expertise. True False Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi's listed credentials include expertise in strategic planning and KPI practitioner, according to the slide. 77 / 1231 Risk management in healthcare primarily addresses potential financial gains. True False Risk management in healthcare focuses on mitigating undesirable outcomes and potential negative impacts on patients or personnel, not financial gains. 78 / 1231 An organization is conducting due diligence on potential insurance brokers. Beyond standard qualifications and experience, what *MOST* accurately demonstrates their capacity to develop innovative risk financing solutions tailored to their organizational profile? Detailed case review of actuarial data, and the capacity to have well help. Length of the prospective's sales team's experience. A documented innovation, a list of potential items with other partners for possible business. A detailed list, so one can find that all the steps were followed and listed. Option C indicates the broker’s analytical abilities, relationships, and capabilities to design a program. This option displays the details for all plans and reviews. 79 / 1231 What is the *MOST* critical distinction between a claims-made and an occurrence insurance policy from a long-term risk management perspective? The premiums and costs are the basis compared in each type. That occurrence plan will cover even if when the policy has expired, as compared to claims made. That a "claims made" plan must be reported with specific guidelines compared to traditional. That a "claims made" relies on IBNR to estimate future losses. Under claims-made, you need to find that a reported event occurred under the window. An occurrence, is a contract when you leave. 80 / 1231 Suppose a hospital implements a new patient safety protocol aimed at reducing surgical site infections (SSIs). Which quantitative metric would *BEST* reflect the efficacy of this risk control technique? Reduction on SSI divided by how many procedures have been done, to what point it did increase under. There is a calculation based on reduction in healthcare claim costs, to know the savings. Number of training hours staff is there, how well their performace did. Net Present Value (NPV) is better for investment costs, what did things end at. Option 'D' is the most concrete because it shows the number of SSI's on a level, which directly reflects the effectiveness of the new program for the procedures completed. 81 / 1231 Under a “retrospective rating” plan, what does it *MOST* directly indicate of the final premium determination at the end of the policy period? The final premium will be equivalent to the initial amount paid for the policy The final premium relies on the actual losses, the retrospective approach to calculating the premiums. The rate/premiums for the policy can only decrease as a function of a “safe to return premium” being added. Each change for all contracts and claims must have all been processed at the same time for all contracts so account is accurate. It's used for retrospective rating, premiums rely heavily under losses, making it the most important factor. This is an additional review of accounting issues 82 / 1231 If an insurance company references IBNR (Incurred But Not Reported) in their actuarial reports, what does this *MOST* accurately suggest regarding their estimation of total liabilities? Use to estimate for claims that don't have enough documentation. Estimate of claims that have occurred but not been reported. It reflects an accounting method for claims reported with insufficient documentation. A conservative strategy specifically for new contracts. IBNR represents the estimated liability for claims that have already occurred but haven't yet been reported to the insurance company, reflecting a future cost. 83 / 1231 In a healthcare system characterized by high operational complexity and interdependence, what is *MOST* critical to establishing a robust and proactively managed risk management framework? Focusing primarily on clinical risks, as these are the direct drivers of patient outcomes. Adopting more stringent regulatory requirements from external accrediting bodies. Aligning strategic goals of the organization with the risks and uncertainty. Segregating risk management functions within individual departments. Option is correct because effective risk management requires strategic alignment, that enables a structured and consistent approach to achieve organizational objectives. 84 / 1231 A large academic medical center is considering implementing a 'blended risk transfer/retention' strategy, utilizing both a high-deductible insurance policy and a captive insurer. What are the *MOST* important factors the CFO needs to evaluate to confirm the economic viability of that plan? The proportion of Medicare/Medicaid patients versus privately insured patients, since government reimbursement rules impact claim frequency. The current ratio and quick ratio of the medical center, ensuring sufficient short-term liquidity. The political climate and the likelihood of tort reform legislation that could potentially dramatically alter payout amounts in liability claims. An analysis showing if there are potential synergistic effects and the actuarial reviewed projections to confirm cost efficiency The synergistic effects plus the actuarial review are the most important because those help show data and information before a decision has been made. This data also helps with being within good numbers. 85 / 1231 When evaluating a claims-made insurance policy, what are the *MOST* critical considerations regarding 'nose coverage' (prior acts coverage) and 'tail coverage' (extended reporting period) a risk manager should analyze? The selection of only 'occurrence' policies to avoid the need for tail or nose. Just making sure either nose or tail coverage is cheaper. Only considering nose coverage, because tail coverage is too complex. The interplay between the retroactive date written into the new policy, with coverage that is not limited and how that date lines up to the previous policy alongside the additional payment with tail coverage. Option C is correct because understanding the interplay between the retroactive date and potential gaps in coverage requires a thorough risk manager assessment. 86 / 1231 An integrated delivery network (IDN) is contemplating shifting from a traditional insurance model toward a risk retention strategy involving a captive insurer. What *critical* prerequisite must be satisfied to ensure the economic viability and regulatory compliance of this captive? Documentation affirming the support of the IDN’s major referring physician groups, ensuring consistent patient flow and revenue generation. An actuarial certification demonstrating the IDN's ability to fully fund the captive's projected liabilities, even under stress-testing scenarios simulating multiple standard deviations from expected loss. A detailed plan for integrating the captive’s claims management operations with the IDN’s existing electronic health record (EHR) system. A гарантированного cost analysis projecting a net savings of at least 15% compared to traditional insurance over a 5-year horizon. Option 'B' is correct. Actuarial soundness is not just about projected savings but critically involves rigorously assessing the IDN’s capacity to meet all potential obligations, even in extreme scenarios. This protects the IDN from insolvency and assures regulators. 87 / 1231 In a "hard insurance market", what is a likely outcome for insurance buyers? Buyers can easily negotiate customized policy endorsements and exceptions. Coverage options become more limited or restricted and rates increase. Insurers compete aggressively for business, offering broader coverage at reduced costs. Coverage terms become more flexible and rates decrease significantly. In a 'hard market,' insurers tend to reduce the amount of coverage and buyers pay more. 88 / 1231 Given a healthcare organization with a mature ERM program, which metric would *MOST* comprehensively reflect the program's efficacy in fortifying resilience against systemic shocks, such as pandemics? A composite index derived from the correlation between organizational strategic objectives achievement alongside reduction in process variability across clinical and operational departments. The total sum of retained losses under the self-insured retention program, normalized against the number of patient encounters. The ratio of insurance claims paid versus premiums remitted across all coverage lines. The speed at which incident reports convert into actionable risk mitigation strategies. Option 'C' is correct because it considers both the achievement of strategic objectives and the reduction in process variability, providing a more holistic measure of the ERM program's impact on organizational resilience. 89 / 1231 What action best helps create steps and solutions for listed issues? A list helps guide and create a direct path to follow. Listening to legal advice from other attorneys Being able to work with medical providers. Talking to other peers or friends in the industry. A list helps create a guide to be followed for support. 90 / 1231 In a risk-financing context, what does “cost certainty” *MOST* directly imply for an organization? The organization has eliminated all potential sources of financial loss. The organization has a high degree of confidence in its broker and insurer. The organization is guaranteed to receive favorable terms upon renewal of its insurance policies. The organization has the ability to precisely predict and budget for its risk-related expenses. Cost certainty implies an ability to accurately forecast and budget for risk-related expenses, facilitating financial planning and stability. 91 / 1231 How do economic conditions affect risk transfer/insurance plans? If an organization wanted to retain less loss exposure and potentially look to transfer more to the insurance company, should they look to be in more of a _soft_ market or a _hard_ market? Can help assist to reduce expenses, and lower insurance as the market shifts. Under higher risk exposure less steps are required from insurance providers. Can change from high profits to not, when a group is not able to calculate properly. They are not directly related in any instance. To allow less loss, the agency must see how the economy changes, and where the plan is now. 92 / 1231 What type of policy would be used at 2 different points to insure 2 groups of physicians, where one group had past coverage and one group is about to set up new coverage: In order for both plans to be followed correctly, new contracts have to be followed before proceeding to provide next steps/advice- or it can void plans. Select what policy types can work, then tailor the options to become in sync once provided to you for selection Always find the legal and financial side to ensure steps can arrive without additional issues down the road. A “nose coverage” can be selected to provide to stay in line, or a provider with new “tail options” Nose coverage provides coverage for known past incidents under current options. This allows both plans to proceed while knowing what/data exist. 93 / 1231 What is the *MOST* complete and accurate definition of an insurance policy's 'declarations page'? It is the section of insurance policy that defines the terminology used throughout the document. It is a summary document that outlines the policy coverage, limits, deductibles, and other key information specific to the insured. It is the documentation defining the specific situations not covered within the overall policy (exclusions). It is a comprehensive overview of rights that the insured has that also includes legal disclosure language from the insurer. It provides a concise summary of the essential elements of the insurance coverage. 94 / 1231 What is the *primary* role of an actuary in the context of healthcare risk management and insurance? To evaluates financial risk, predict future losses, and ensures long-term financial stability. To ensure that all policy language aligns with state and federal regulations. To represent the insurance company in legal disputes regarding claim payouts. To maintain current knowledge of healthcare regulations and laws, ensuring the healthcare facility complies with all requirements. An actuary assesses financial risk, estimates future losses, and ensures financial stability. 95 / 1231 How does an 'unfunded loss reserve' function within risk retention? It involves borrowing funds from external sources to cover unexpected loss payments. It refers to an insurance policy purchased to cover losses that exceed the organization's self-insured retention. It represents a legally separate account with dedicated assets set aside to pay for losses. It signifies a portion of surplus earmarked through an accounting entry as a potential liability for retained losses. An 'unfunded loss reserve' represents surplus earmarked as a potential liability, without a dedicated and legally separate account. 96 / 1231 Which factor would likely be the *MOST* influential for a hospital when deciding between a traditional insurance plan and a self-insured retention (SIR) plan? The preferences of the hospital's board of trustees, as they bear ultimate liability. The hospital's financial capacity to readily absorb potential losses and ability to manage associated claims. The current recommendations from the hospital's legal counsel. Projected increases in regional patient volume in the next 5 to 10 years, creating a larger pool for risk. Financial capacity is key; self-insurance means the hospital directly bears risks and must have sufficient funds to cover potential losses. 97 / 1231 Under a "claims-made" insurance policy, what action is critical for coverage if an incident occurs near the end of the policy term? The insured must request and pay for an extended reporting period (tail coverage). The incident must have already been internally investigated and a plan designed to prevent it from happening again. The insurer is obligated to renew the insureds policy, regardless of whether or not legal action has commenced. The incident must result in a lawsuit before the policy expires. Under a “claims-made” policy, requesting and paying for an extended reporting period (tail coverage) is necessary to ensure that claims made after the policy's expiration for incidents that occurred during the policy term are still covered. 98 / 1231 To ensure well covered, well support and better support, which option allows one to stay in-line? Changing to new medical care without consideration for historical coverage. Changing brokers with new historical policies. Reporting to a new carrier with out previous records. Changing providers with those records. Better option allows one to stay in-line when changing plans and with better support. 99 / 1231 Which attribute should a business value when looking for a new broker? Repetition Expert in health care Limited capacity Minimal cost Quality broker has expert in health care. 100 / 1231 What is meant when an insurance provider cites 'Nose Coverage'? Coverage of costs arising if olfactory senses altered owing incident. Guarantee insuring incidents arising historically. Extra compensation reimbursing plastic surgeon expenses owing injuries. Clause capping expenditure compensating rhinoplasty. "Nose Coverage" deals with historical incidents. 101 / 1231 With what is "cost certainty" best associated within a risk financing context? Situations where future expenses often fluctuate radically. Circumstances where funds held across myriad accounts. Total risk transfer where financial accountability fixed upfront. Conditions permitting insurer retroactively alter premiums reflecting results. "cost certainty" financial accountability fixed upfront. 102 / 1231 Under an insurance arrangement, what primarily motivates using actuarial reviews? Minimizing tax obligation. Disclosing operational procedures regulatory review panels. Gauge hazard probabilities. Pinpointing weaknesses enabling competitors undercutting premiums. Actuarial reviews gauge hazard probabilities. 103 / 1231 What is the goal of Risk Financing techniques used in risk management? To pass the risk management function to insurance firms. To lower the quantity of future losses that transpire. To implement preventative safety measures. To make resources available to handle losses. Risk financing targets the availability of resources to address losses. 104 / 1231 What is a _claims-made_ insurance policy most distinguished for? Willing to cover claims stated within term even for circumstances outside date. Only covering claims both occurring and formally lodged while agreement remains. Covering incidents whenever, provided premiums are settled perpetually. Affording continuous protection spanning history, so far policy commenced before event. Claims-made relates to within the agreement term. 105 / 1231 Which insurance sector is 'HMO/Capitation stop loss' most pertinent to? Marine businesses dependent on transoceanic freight. Property deals affected by zoning or planning code disobedience. Medical ventures overseeing prepaid healthcare schemes. Transportation conglomerates wrestling with fleet preservation expenses. "HMO/Capitation stop loss" insurance is medical. 106 / 1231 Within insurance policies, what signifies the 'declarations page'? Contractual language nullifying the insurer should the premium be overdue. Complete enumeration of conditions relieving the insurer when claims are filed. A synopsis pinpointing insured parties, assets, and maximum payouts. Non-standard disclaimer asserting limits on legal recourse. "Declarations Page" summarizes critical data. 107 / 1231 Under insurance policies incorporating a 'deductible', who bears the responsibility for covering expenses up to the deductible amount? The government. Expenses are covered directly through third-party. The insured is accountable for handling expenses before the insurer contributes. The insurer manages payment, then charges to insured. deductibles are insured part. 108 / 1231 What fundamentally defines 'Insurance' in the context of risk transfer? A financial agreement where an individual assumes responsibility for all potential future risks. A structured means of transferring losses for specific perils. A scheme to sidestep tax obligations by designating assets for hypothetical legal battles. An investment where one stands to accumulate interest or dividends. Insurance functions to transfer money. 109 / 1231 In the domain of insurance, what is a 'captive insurer' most akin to? Subsidiary specifically funding specified losses for parent. A state-run entity safeguarding policyholder interests and adjudicating disputes. Third-party organization rendering claims adjustment and settlement advisory. Association establishing model guidelines for actuarial integrity and regulatory compliance. Captive insurers are closely tied to the insured. 110 / 1231 Which option accurately defines 'current expensing of losses' within Risk Retention? Covering losses with available cash in the present as they manifest. Covering insurance premium payments via borrowing funds. Transferring the responsibility of future losses to another party. Setting aside funds into a dedicated reserve for unexpected future losses. "Current Expensing of Losses" relates to available capital. 111 / 1231 How do contracts containing hold-harmless agreements function under risk control techniques? They transfer potential legal or financial responsibilities when a loss event transpires. They guarantee a maximum recovery amount in case of a loss. They specify preventative measures to minimize loss likelihood. They dictate a party will not be held liable. "Hold Harmless Agreement" contracts assign responsibilities. 112 / 1231 What is the main function of 'Loss Prevention' as a risk control technique? To transfer the financial risk for potential losses to a third party. To separate or duplicate risk exposure. To reduce the likelihood of a potential occurrence. To decrease the value of potential damages. "Loss Prevention" targets lowering the frequency of losses. 113 / 1231 In the context of ERM goals, what does 'reducing uncertainty and process variability' primarily aim to achieve? Encouraging innovation by embracing a wider range of possible outcomes. Increasing the potential for unexpected positive outcomes. Accepting a higher degree of risk to maximize potential returns. Minimizing deviations from expected results and improving predictability. Reducing uncertainty means minimizing deviation. 114 / 1231 Which viewpoint accurately characterizes Risk Avoidance as a risk control technique? Choosing never to undertake an activity to completely eliminate associated risks. Undertaking activities only when the potential rewards outweigh the risks. Implementing measures to reduce the likelihood of an occurrence. Transferring the responsibility for managing risks to a third party. Risk avoidance is eliminating risks. 115 / 1231 What is the primary difference in focus between traditional and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)? TRM focuses on strategic risks, while ERM focuses on operational risks. ERM focuses on downside risks while TRM balances both downside and upside. TRM focuses on hazard risks and ERM encompasses a wider range of risks. ERM focuses on financial risks, while TRM focuses on compliance risks. ERM addresses a wider range of risks than TRM. 116 / 1231 What distinguishes the 'Strategic' category of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) risk categories? Risks related to the daily operational activities of the organization. Risks associated with legal and regulatory compliance. Risks involving potential hazards and accidents. Risks that impact the organization's goals and objectives. Strategic risks directly affect an organization's success. 117 / 1231 In traditional risk management, what is a common approach to handling risk? Actively seeking opportunities for risk-taking to maximize gains. Ignoring potential risks until they materialize to avoid unnecessary costs. Strict risk avoidance through limited focus and insurance. Embracing uncertainty as a way to foster innovation. Traditional Risk Management employs risk avoidance. 118 / 1231 According to a legal case, what 3 parts need to have those to be legal and to hold the standards (select all that apply)? Determining the acceptable state. Assessment the legal steps only. Assessment something. Discovering the facts. Determining the acceptable state.; Assessment the legal steps only.; Discovering the facts. 119 / 1231 In the insurance world, what would someone need to understand what they do? All aspects with that support. They account for each plan and more steps for the work. To run good practices and steps as those. To know and assist those with it, those steps to have this point. There to be the most correct and key person to help in correct format and point when running steps there for the detail to work with these. 120 / 1231 Which of the following is a good area for support? All things to assist their role. Always well and known to work. Support and team steps. Team player and able to run well. Always ensure those steps can arrive and run better on those parts. 121 / 1231 According to the plan, what might you expect to see as a benefit from coverage Insurance? High points for it to run. Having and working better for those actions. Having support and working details with action parts. Running that plan as good detail with them. The help can be set in place and provide a value with great output. 122 / 1231 During self insurance (credit risk), how should funds function under what? In a separate bank with the right aspects to follow and improve. Lacking steps that has only good steps. Those to not account and for all to agree. To be ready to be removed and not used ever. This credit should have access to the good for them to use the best type with it for actions. 123 / 1231 The part of your contract that defines the steps involved as best and all. Insuring agreement. Following for other plans. Having action from now. That to fix it thereafter. The insuring agreements define what's involved. 124 / 1231 An organization fails to monitor slippery floor. The family pushing patient sues. Intended. Non-covered. Unintended. This is what it's supposed to cover. According to the type of captive funded risk. It falls under unintentional. 125 / 1231 If a company wanted a plan in which they pay per individual losses, self insurance, how often do they expect those pay? As they occur. For low plan. Always over a month plan. To not hear from the insurance team. The process is set and when they occur they charge off losses as cash with no extra payments. 126 / 1231 Under direct insurance, what is the purpose of having 'excess insurance'? To afford additional limits of liability. For insurance companies to collect more. To pay all of the premium. To avoid using other policies. Having excess insurance helps with affording additional liability coverage above current insurance. 127 / 1231 How do risk reduction techniques aim to reduce or mitigate a loss? Only after the event has occurred. Just during the occurrence of the event. Prior to the event occurring. Risk reduction does not reduce risk. Risk reduction techniques will either reduce or mitigate a loss. 128 / 1231 Which of the following exposures does NOT belong under third party insurance coverage? General liability (premises liability). Educational and Child Care Center. Umbrella excess liability. Directors and officers liability (D&O). Umbrella or Excesses follow and sit over any coverage. You need to verify what is under that Umbrella/Excess policy. 129 / 1231 Which of the following actions is most aligned with the use of 'risk control' after considering Risk Identification and before Risk Financing? Paying for liability losses after they have been incurred. Calculating expected cost estimates of all likely accidental events that can occur. Paying the cost, no contact to improve or make a difference in the long run on outcomes. Lessen the severity of potential accidental event losses. Risk Control, under Risk Treatments, has a goal to stop losses from ever occurring or lessen the severity of existing potential events. 130 / 1231 If all was in place for steps, what then is required? Nothing needs attention and will solve those issues. Contact the team to improve a better structure. Continue as if there was nothing to do. Find and run that step. The proper step was those with the most key to assist. 131 / 1231 When working with a contract that requires insurance, what needs to be considered first? What needs to occur and is in plan. To ask for an expert. Nothing is there to help. Those resources to make it be better. That data has to show for the data has been done or fixed. 132 / 1231 To follow one of the steps for help and action, what needs to be done before the correct actions arrive? Those actions are ready to solve it all. Those resources are ready to contact those to fix. To first allow and detail the correct process. Those steps are ready. Make sure before action, the process and data are present and accounted for. 133 / 1231 If an agency wanted to retain less loss exposure and potentially look to transfer more to the insurance company, should they look to be in more of a **_soft_** market or a **_hard_** market? More possible to retain less loss exposure in a **_soft_** market. Always better in a third option. Makes no difference which one. More possible to retain less loss exposure in a **_hard_** market. During a soft market, the premium rates are lowered, and there is broader market coverage. 134 / 1231 If a plan has high value, what makes them important to run? Allow a better life. High and fast to help those that are working and those that have this care. To manage the correct areas with high attention. To allow less stress. Running all those aspects helps the key part and have a better life and more stable core group. 135 / 1231 When a plan does not follow what has been set, what then should occur? To let nature sort it out. To change all the steps. Those steps shouldn't have been taken anyway. To try and make the best step but to ensure the change needs to help. All changes need to run smoothly to continue plans. 136 / 1231 All steps and changes need well- what? High value and quality. High and fast. To make sure those steps are correct to run. Data and Support high plans in detail. The core value of all these parts should be that way going forward in time. 137 / 1231 What are four steps that can help and be the correct steps? Correct names, details, and to make it run with success. Those four from all aspects. To have good work, run at high value, with as few problems as able. Having all the knowledge to apply to run and help all sides. This was based on the need to follow and ensure this process runs as intended. 138 / 1231 Depending on Underwriter to account to follow the data provided to be correct To have accurate data for rate and price. Have a plan to fall under them. Only what is good. Make a new plan to account for this altogether. The correct plans have all those options and more to improve the base. 139 / 1231 Most steps require which thing from the brokers? For Expertise and good data to improve and change. Allow help in all areas for those points. For them to manage and grow. For them to run better. The data to have the correct changes to work, run, and follow. 140 / 1231 According to Insurance groups, what is the most important for plans? Helping steps to run, manage, and plan the future. For plans to run and keep people focused. Those to have some steps. For people to have a better life. This allows all sides to have their opinions valued; and that information is followed. 141 / 1231 If a report mentions the topic 'Nose Coverage' what might it mention? Period of time between an insured's retroactive date and the current policy period. The right and ability to be honest. A way to avoid insurance companies altogether. When to report those issues. Those listed under nose are a potential, and if one has this as the value, to account for those times. 142 / 1231 When are the costs under retro come? When things are in order with clients. 6 months after it is finished. If the date is set before anything is paid. Under certain types. The steps and process for a timeline, to help what can occur. 143 / 1231 When changing providers to new medical care. Which option allows one to stay in-line and with better support? Never look for plans to try and hide the change. Maintain Retro Date. Call Insurance to be set for this change. Continue as if nothing has happened. Maintaining those aspects helps one continue a smooth transition between transfers and even more to keep track of incidents. 144 / 1231 Once an issue has been listed, what best helps guide steps and potential solutions for these incidents? Claims-Made coverage. Contracts to have others agree. Standard Elements. Insurance pricing. The claims made coverage details data related to the correct steps, and what needs to be done to take those steps. 145 / 1231 The part of your contract that defines the most standard data for insurance is? What to do. Contracts. Data reference. Standard Elements. Those that are related to standards fall under Standard Elements. 146 / 1231 What role helps with data to be calculated under actuarial use? Total cost and how much can come from this. To ensure safety. To not have anyone know. Organization lost data. The information allows all parts to run with a better form and function and help see if data has issues. 147 / 1231 When examining professional liability, which one of these has the potential to add more data? If you see the right amount. Previous occurrence policy. The day-to-day process. Current information. The Previous Information has potential and even allows some extra data related to insurance. 148 / 1231 What is the overall goal of risk financing? Generating funds to pay for losses risk control does not prevent. To take as much funds as possible without a net loss. Minimize contact with losses. Generating capital gains in financial markets. The main goal of risk financing is generating funds to pay for all losses that risk control does not entirely prevent. 149 / 1231 According to one risk control technique, what would one do if a risk has been determined to be outside of all acceptable safety measures? Risk Avoidance. Following the incident in person. Risk Assuming. Risk Transfer. According to risk management, risk avoidance would mean never undertaking risks that have been determined to be outside of acceptable parameters. 150 / 1231 What must someone provide to receive payment on their insurance policy? Commitment to never use their device again. Commitment to pay. Commitment to attend their next appointment. Commitment to only use in certain conditions. One must provide a commitment to pay to receive money if a party suffers a type of loss listed in their agreement. 151 / 1231 Under insurance non-insurance, what is an important thing to find under these services? A service plan or contract. A good way to not spend more money. Someone to go to learn more. Someone to help you understand the problems. Under the contract where one party agrees to have the other transfer or agree to pay the payments set in motion. 152 / 1231 With insurance to be considered, one must ensure: All aspects are not in contact, to ensure something doesn't occur. All aspects are legal. All aspects are understood when used. All is able to move. Insurance is based on the existence of if all aspects of the plan fall under legal standards. 153 / 1231 Match the type of steps with how to manage: To build and create it right and that teams care = Team can know how it runs/what they matter. Share process and team/share results and goal = team understand that everyone wants great for all- and what we do or where all are. 154 / 1231 Match the follow to its description to a good leadership A great plan = Always help them to solve issues (give them your strength). To build and create it right and that teams care = Make team aware what it is for-why it is there…. Help all team members. Share process and team/share results and goal = team know that everyone wants great for all. Great minds think alike, be open to growth. 155 / 1231 Which of these factors contributed to the evolution of healthcare risk management in the 1970s? Less litigation Decreased medical professional liability Increased availability of medical professional liability insurers Rising insurance premiums Rising insurance premiums was a key motivator in the movement towards formal risk management. 156 / 1231 What is the primary aim of risk management? Maximize the adverse event of accidental losses. Increase accidental losses. Increase accidental losses and liability Minimize adverse events. Effective risk management seeks to minimize the impact and frequency of negative occurrences. 157 / 1231 According to the content, what is the definition of 'harm' in the context of healthcare risk management? Financial injury resulting from medical car Undesirable patient outcomes regardless of injury Intentional physical injury resulting from medical car Unintended physical injury resulting from or contributed to by medical car that requires additional monitoring, treatment, or hospitalization, or that result in death. Harm is defined as unintended physical injury resulting from medical treatment that requires intervention or results in negative outcomes. 158 / 1231 What is the focus of traditional risk management in healthcare? Promoting staff leadership and training Strict risk avoidance related to insurance. Keeping patient in the dark about risk management Blaming and training people Traditional risk management primarily focuses on strict risk avoidance as it relates to insurance concerns. 159 / 1231 The step of 'Treatment' in Risk Management has goals to achieve which of the following choices? Incident reporting and paperwork. Examination, Selection and Implementation of Alternative Risk Treatments. Calling your insurance provider to file an incident report. Avoiding answering questions to hide potential issues. The goal of 'Treatment' in the Risk Management Process has goals to examine, select, and implement alternative risk treatments. 160 / 1231 In risk ranking, after you identify the level and the likelihood of a certain step. What is next when performing a risk ranking calculation? Identifying who might be at fault. Reference the product against a range of values. Avoiding the issue altogether. Finding the appropriate steps to take. In the risk ranking process, it is important to multiply the impact assessment with the likelihood assessment for each risk, then reference the product against a range of values. 161 / 1231 What is the primary objective of reporting incidents in healthcare risk management? To adhere to written policies and procedures. To ensure objective data and actions. To ensure consistency with routine care and operational standards. To initiate disciplinary actions against involved staff. Incident reporting aims to standardize actions and data, ensuring consistent and reliable responses to deviations from expected healthcare procedures. 162 / 1231 Which of the following methods is considered a 'formal' approach to risk identification? Incident Reporting. Committee Minutes. Hotline for reporting concerns. Collaborative Relationships. Formal methods, such as incident reporting, involve structured processes for identifying and documenting potential risks. 163 / 1231 During risk identification, what is the purpose of determining the 'type of value exposed to loss'? To determine the level of emotional harm to parties involved. To estimate the cost of potential litigation. To identify the nature of assets that could be at risk. To assess the solvency of insurance provider. Identifying the type of value at risk helps to characterize what could be lost, guiding the selection of appropriate risk management techniques. 164 / 1231 What is the purpose of 'monitoring' in the ERM decision-making process? Ensure the insurance carrier is solvent. Ensure the selected risk techniques are being implemented. Ensure techniques do not need changes. Ensure the financial impact is accurate. Monitoring is crucial to reassess the risk landscape and to adapt risk management techniques as needed, ensuring continuous effectiveness. 165 / 1231 How does Enterprise Risk Management engage stakeholders compared to Traditional Risk Management? ERM primarily involves the board and C-suite, while TRM involves clinicians and staff. Both ERM and TRM engage the board and C-suite equally. Neither ERM nor TRM consider outside stakeholders, because they are strictly internal processes. ERM involves clinicians and staff, while TRM primarily involves the board and C-suite. Enterprise Risk Management integrates input from clinicians and staff, whereas traditional risk management centers around decisions made by the board and C-suite. 166 / 1231 What is the primary focus of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) regarding risk? Addressing risk from all sources across and beyond the organization. Addressing risk only within specific departments. Transferring all risks to insurance companies. Completely avoiding all potential risks. ERM aims to address risks comprehensively, considering all potential sources both internal and external to the organization. 167 / 1231 Which is one of the key goals of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) in healthcare? Increasing uncertainty. Promoting patient safety. Maximizing operational costs. Ignoring process variability. ERM seeks to prioritize patient safety through the implementation of effective risk management strategies. 168 / 1231 In the context of healthcare risk management, what does the term 'hazard' primarily refer to? The potential for financial loss due to market fluctuations. The legal liabilities associated with patient care. A condition that creates or increases the chance of loss. Adverse events affecting patients or staff members. A hazard is a condition that elevates the possibility of losses, such as inadequate staffing or faulty equipment. 169 / 1231 What is the ultimate goal of the risk management process? To transfer all risks to an insurance provider. To eliminate all risks within the organization. To minimize the adverse event of accidental losses. To increase the frequency of risk assessments. The risk management process focuses on making decisions that reduce the potential for accidental losses to negatively impact the organization. 170 / 1231 What is considered the primary objective of traditional risk management? Enhancing patient experience and satisfaction. Identifying strategic opportunities for the organization. Promoting a culture of innovation and growth. Protecting financial resources and reputation. Traditional risk management places a high priority on safeguarding the organization's financial stability and public image. 171 / 1231 What would be one be required to do know all is in placed? To use this type read the police the risk manager. To review that has been reported To look at past coverage. To read the notes on each. Focusing on reporting can be key. 172 / 1231 To create a standard or agreement which of the following needs to occur or be in order to manage this? To call every to double count what type of action Reporting has the agreement. Review that all has been in lined, before submitting To provide each agreement and policy followed and be in effect. The focus is to have it reported correctly. 173 / 1231 What step involves finding what is the core basis for each type from this point ? Making you are covered by the specific type. How to cover medical policies Know when to consult for best premium value Knowing all that involves insurance in general. Its what occurs or what the claims can be for. 174 / 1231 What does one need to be well covered? High cover and review what's important. Consult insurances broker; review policy definition. Review polices and follow what you sign Report losses early then you claim Knowing the definition for coverage is the base before getting involved. 175 / 1231 What to retain less a loss exposure and what action might you have to take under this market shift ? To get a team with high value.. To increase insurance purchased To set a system. To get help to retain. You are to understand the dynamics and to reduce costs or make better decisions 176 / 1231 Under typical insurance policy, what is the date where all records have been recorded and updated for the insurnace company? 1.Two yaers after policy expiration and every two years thereafter Six months after policy expiration and then annually thereafter About a month or two after expire date. At time of sale. All retro ratings are accounted for at this date. 177 / 1231 What is the defintion or reference to for Retractive Rate? When you have to pay more. To adjust premium accoridng to actual loss 6 month after policy When there is lower premiums. To apply premium at current stage To account premium loss, with adjusting after loss. 178 / 1231 Which best describes the point/expertise of Underwriter? To oversee any finacial transactions occur. Someone that is high position. Know that law. Manage finance Someone to evaluate or analyze and value and set for an insurance. 179 / 1231 Which members are required for Insurance? Claims, prevention, and signer. Actuary and IBNR Underwriter and examiner Loss prevention and Underwriter Underwriters and the claims examiner. 180 / 1231 How are a Broker and Agent different? Agents help protect client's assets and broker oversees their financial. Agents represent financial records and broker represents organization An agent represent the purchaser and broker insurer. An agent represents the insurance and broker the purhcased Agents and brokers represent parties. 181 / 1231 Which is a key attribute to find when hiring a new broker? Communication skill and creativity Wealthy and following directions. Creativity to change direction. Adaptability and being very expensive. Availability, health care management skills, and communication are core skills to look for. 182 / 1231 During a **_soft_** insurance market which option is more possible? Stringent Underwriting Reduced Capacity Higher Premiums Increased Capacity With there comes with easier underwriting and high coverage options. 183 / 1231 What factors define drafting specification coverage? Evaluating risks with carrier. Reviewing exposure with carrier to select Evaluate exposure and select insurance carrier. Selecting the team that understand the policies Drafting coverage specifications, one must review their insurance carriers and evaluate 184 / 1231 Why is there a shift occurring from traditional risk management to enterprise risk management? Less regulatory pressure Decrease in fraud and abuse There is less regulatory pressure now Greater social media presence The shift from traditional to enterprise risk management is influenced by new healthcare models and increased regulation. 185 / 1231 Which of the following steps is part of the process for ERM as a Decision-Making Process? Monitoring techniques and making changes as necessary. Ignoring past risk techniques Isolating the process from strategic decisions. Focusing solely on financial risks. Continuously monitoring and adjusting risk handling techniques ensures the organization remains adaptable and effective. 186 / 1231 What is the first step in the risk management process? Identifying and analyzing exposure. Treat the exposure through RM techniques Risk financing. Risk control. Identifying and analyzing what an organization is exposed to sets the stage for managing the risks it faces. 187 / 1231 Incident reports serve as a _cornerstone_ to which one of the following concepts? A health care risk management program. Risk avoidance. Incident definition. Report objectivity. Incident reports are the cornerstone of a health care risk management program. 188 / 1231 What is the goal of providing Risk Management Training? Protect financial resources. Develop corrective action. Blain and train Have the information investigation kept confidential Develop corrective action. 189 / 1231 When classifying exposures, what are the three mentioned exposure types? Property, net income, and liability Operational, strategic, and financial Financial, reputational, and legal Internal, external, and environmental The process for classifying exposures, are property, net income, and liability. 190 / 1231 Which one of the following methods is for the _treatment_ of an exposure using risk management techniques? Exposure evaluation Risk control Loss measurement Risk identification There are a number of ways of treating the exposure through risk management techniques such as, Risk control 191 / 1231 What is the primary goal of risk financing? Prevent losses from occurring. Reduce the likelihood that losses will occur. Transfer risk to another party. Pay for losses once they occur. Risk financing involves all ways of generating funds to pay for unavoidable losses. 192 / 1231 What is the distinction between risk control and risk financing? Risk control minimizes adverse and unexpected risk; risk financing recovers the funds to pay for any loss. Risk control prevents losses before or reduces severirty, risk financing manages financial aspect of loss after it occurs. Risk control reduces the need for revenue and risk financing reduces losses before or after they occur Risk control prepares for any possible loss and risk financing is carried out by decisions that will assist In prevention of adverse consequences. Risk control acts to reduce the negative effect of a risk, and risk financing manages the loss after it occurs. 193 / 1231 What is meant by 'unfunded loss reserve' in the context of risk financing? Having no plans for liability. Accounting entry showing a potential liability Setting aside money as investment. A dedicated bank account set aside for unexpected losses An unfunded loss reserve is an accounting method that show potential, segregating future value to compensate. 194 / 1231 What is the purpose of risk retention groups? To help retain assets. To focus on non-profit risk analysis To handle noninsurnace risk. To provide liability coverage to members and owners with similar or related entities. Risk retention groups help provide liability converge to related members. 195 / 1231 Which type of insurance provides payment if a party suffers a type of loss listed in their agreement? Hold harmless. Liability. Third Party Insurnace. Indemnity. With indemnity insurances, one party agres ti pay the other a specified amount for damages. 196 / 1231 What is the meaning on Insurance? Covered from certain natural disasters. A system where losses are shared between the insured A system where you are to pay specified amount. A system where risk transfers to another insurance comapny.. An insurance system provies insurance with a company, so if that customer incurs losses they get reimbursted. 197 / 1231 What is a direct function that financial Guarantees Provide? Ensuring a financial return on investments. Financial return against a loss. Contract guaranteeing performance A guarantee for money lost. Financial garuntees provides function as a contract guarentee, not just a financial compensation. 198 / 1231 Which of the following steps is the primary focus of regulation of insurance at the state level? Approve policy forms and handling complaints Overseeing that they are legally sound To have access on reinsurance Managing and verifying financial size Regulations of insurances have power over their departments, overseeing their policy implementation and handling complaints. 199 / 1231 What does 'current expensing of losses' refer to in risk retention? An acconting entry that shows a liability and how retained loss occured. Setting aside funds for future losses Paying for losses out of available cash as they occur Transferring expenses to another financial year. Current expensing of losses means paying for those losses out of the revenue available. 200 / 1231 According to ASHRM's definition, what does ERM in healthcare promote? Focusing solely on compliance with regulations Protecting speculative investments Reactive risk management after losses occur A comprehensive framework for making risk management decisions which maximize value protection and creation by managing risk and uncertainty and their connections to total value. ERM aims to protect and create value by skillfully managing risks and uncertainties across the organization. 201 / 1231 What is the primary difference between Traditional Risk Management (TRM) and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) in terms of their focus? TRM focuses on strategic planning, while ERM focuses on implementation. TRM is proactive, while ERM is reactive. ERM is proactive, while TRM is reactive. ERM focuses on departmental activities, while TRM the entire organization wide. ERM takes a forward-thinking approach to risk management, whereas traditional methods are more geared toward responding to specific incidents. 202 / 1231 Which of the following accurately describes Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)? Operates independently without support from the healthcare organization board. Focuses on risks that only impact short-term financial goals. Addresses risks without considering strategic goals. Recognizes synergistic effects of risk across all facets of an organization. Enterprise Risk Management looks at the whole picture of risk and how individual risks can impact other parts of the organization. 203 / 1231 Match how to prepare your patient for disclosure with its best practice: Create trust = Make them feel they are in the right place (re-assure!). Create and check all facts first before you talk (ensure/do you have ALL details). Check charts and all and talk with core team members for the process. = It to gain their trust. Find quiet and safe space = Find support persons from family to help the patient… - Check what they know or think! Let them be known and in charge; they can give feedback for direction. 204 / 1231 Match the term to reasons patients may need some support: Patients at the middle! = You are there, as they might have a great challenge. Are NOT able to hear/see and speak back for care at right side. = You can be there to help! 205 / 1231 Match the item from column A with its definition in column B: HRO=HIGH reliability = Organizations that function with few mistakes. Have an operation for great safety that is with no harm! = To have a strong process! The stronger, the more we can check and not allow issues - so, important, what and how to do. Have teamwork and leadership to listen = For safer patients. They are always the best combo. Understanding what it takes leads to better choices. 206 / 1231 Match the description with where it most applies: central voice for patient safety, Supported by well-known patient safety leaders. = To National Patient Care Safety. Education programs for profession, To Research project grants. = To research, so it can be safe to help all patients. Awareness campaign, To support those with families for involvement = To help, to make sure there is support with family. These organizations are designed to improve healthcare, and are led to safety. 207 / 1231 Match the following terms related to patient family relations: Patients in hospital and safety in work = Education of professional, leadership to all work groups to ensure safety in mind. High-level, patients or staff = The support towards patients and for their care and help to avoid claims. Building better care in the culture of all levels. 208 / 1231 Match the following terms with their healthcare organization: National Patient Safety Foundation = Focuses on independent, non-profit organization. The Leapfrog Group = Coalition of Fortune (500) companies. National Quality Forum = Private nonprofit organization seeking to improve US healthcare. Learning the players in the healthcare world sets those CPHRM members above. 209 / 1231 Match the question for what we do NOT want: A- Lack of data and tracking tools = Hard to create a plan. B- Fear of sharing due to $ and lawsuits + time = Patients feel helpless. Lack of patient care/input… Lack of team efforts and training = Endless to fix problems, when problems keep re-occurring. The question in the problem to fix it. 210 / 1231 Match the item from the question to reason for decline in those standards: 1. Lack of data and tracking tools = It will be hard to know what the problem is to solve (or to make a smart plan)! Lack of the staff support = No teamwork. Lack of leadership in hospitals to ensure we care and see patients, or that systems run smooth = if Leadership does not care, it’s over. Understanding the best way for improvement is the question. 211 / 1231 Match the step with the importance of the steps to take: First, listen to the patient! Do what we can! Be the best provider we can for each patient’s needs! = Is an obligation towards patients. Make it safe. Be open and understanding of the patient perspective = Is needed for quality and great communication between the patient and caregiver. Have a great method/process! Listen, implement, do-audit and DO!! Repeat = For better patient outcomes. Always care about patient relations. 212 / 1231 Match the statement made to describe what kind of event it is: Adverse events = Events that are not as a result of a medical mistake. Serious reportable events = Are very important as patients end up with harm, death! The Joint Commitments are working to ensure it can be reported. Never event/ sendable = CMS does not pay for them! It needs more review. Understanding the difference between types of events is key for healthcare. 213 / 1231 Match the statement with what is the key goal: Communication with Key personnel: inter-disciplinary relationship between groups = The most important element. Structured Monitoring and Feedback = For all teams to ensure all can work. Accountability for Structured Monitoring and Feedback = The process for bettering safety. Team building helps improve productivity and overall safety within healthcare. 214 / 1231 Match the type of maturity and safety: Pathological = No system in place. Reactive = Systems are piecemeal. Calculative = Systematic approach, per event. Proactive = Evidence-based intervention. 215 / 1231 Match the types of steps with managing medical errors: 1- Human error = Console, to avoid repeat mistakes, train to ensure this does not occur again. 2- at risk = Remove incentive + coach to take it off. + make the environment safer. 3- reckless = Punish, to prevent, as putting others at grave risk + to make accountable. Important in healthcare. 216 / 1231 Match the following with their definitions: Good catches resulting in a practice change = Good to implement in current practice, as: prevent something harmful from happening. Number of FMECAs (Failure effect) + Number of RCAs resulting = Critical to see the impact on those systems, after every step implemented. Sentinel events with and without disclosures. Number of disclosures involving risk management = Important tool to follow how the errors have progressed. Number of Committees, Patient-family councils = These 2 items help ensure staff and patient support. Important to help keep track. 217 / 1231 Match the following phrases to examples of what can cause them: 1- Human error = Lapses tend to occur in situations that are so routine that they have become rote. - risk behavior = The choice to risk a situation. - reckless behavior = The fact of putting self or others at risk. It comes and goes. 218 / 1231 Match safety culture to its correct definition: To design a culture of safety = it is important to ensure that organizations take the approach proactively so it can be as safe as possible. There are some concepts to always be accounted for, as: = Leadership, learning, the right team members, and communication methods. Main idea is = to prevent as many errors as we can or, at least, to be able to manage them to prevent further ones. It's a critical part of keeping a healthcare team. 219 / 1231 Match the definition to type of barriers: 1- The Joint Commission's Sentinel Event Policy = For Healthcare Professional for guidance. What promises are made during this process must be kept; trust is at stake. = Patient needs. Maintain close contact with the patient/family during the process. Do not put the onus of responsibility on them to maintain the relationship. = Healthcare responsibility. There is always a key role for healthcare. 220 / 1231 Match the phases with human reactions to medical errors: 1- feedback = A response to someone's reaction. 2- culture, physical challenge = Not everyone experiences this in the same way. 8- communication () teamwork, barriers = Working together creates progress. Healthcare professionals need to know how to respond. 221 / 1231 Match the item to the reasons of patient safety: To understand what happened. = To be able to comprehend. To understand the ramifications of the event. = To comprehend and be responsible. To have sufficient information to make future decisions (including seeking compensation) = To have sufficient knowledge. To receive an apology from the organization. = To make space to heal. By understanding, we have the ability to take responsible action. 222 / 1231 Match the term used for patient relations: All applicable NPSGs or acceptable alternative approaches must be implemented. = This assures patient satisfaction. The Joint Commission requires hospitals to select one high-risk process = assure patient safety. Review draft patient safety suggested actions for potential publication in The Joint Commission's Sentinel Event Alert patient safety advisory = This brings high standards. This brings high importance to Healthcare Organization world. 223 / 1231 Match the item found in patient safety to its definition: Information, Warning labels. = The use to advise with written notice. Posters, Memos, Training = All are great and various ways to advertise. Policies and procedures = Great to create guidelines. Standardization of process = Critical during different steps of safety. Those items are critical to healthcare. 224 / 1231 Match the term to its meaning: Forcing functions = use action restrictions that make it impossible to do a task incorrectly. Redundancies = check for errors, double-check someone's work. Checklist = avoid reliance on memory by using tools. (e.g., teamwork and communication) = promote effective team functioning. Using work tools in the workplace is critical to healthcare. 225 / 1231 Match the term to where errors are made. Active error = at the point of contact between a human and some aspect of a larger system. Latent error = lesser apparent failures of organization or design that contributed to the occurrence of errors, or allowed them to cause harm to patients. Both can contribute to medical errors. 226 / 1231 Match the domains of the CPHRM Examination content to its purpose: Recall = the ability to recall or recognize specific information. Application = ability to apply knowledge to new or changing situations. Analysis = the ability to analyze and synthesize information, determine solutions and/or evaluate usefulness of a solution. Those who become a CPHRM have mastered these elements in healthcare risk-management. 227 / 1231 Match the description with Healthcare Organizations in high reliability. Leadership = The presence of active leadership which promotes and assures patient safety measures. Reporting Culture = Members who report all potential safety risks. Rewarding System = A system which incentivizes employees who contribute to maintaining the organization. Complex System = The presence of a complex system which will run without error. This model lists key components of Healthcare organizations in high reliability. 228 / 1231 Associate the step with Applying to take the CPHRM examination. Initial application = Candidates must submit application online to be considered to take the exam. Special Accomodations = Requests done during online Registration by contacting AMP. AHA request = Needs for International Administration are available. Find out more = Additional questions about Candidate Center found online. The CPHRM examinations for test centers outside the United States may be available online or by phone. 229 / 1231 Match the following study tools with their intended use in CPHRM Examination Prep: CPHRM Exam Preparation Guide = Aids in exam preparation by including practice questions. Health Care Risk Management Fundamentals Textbook = Provides fundamental knowledge. Study Guide = Offers test review tips. The CPHRM Exam is offered by the American Hospital Association. 230 / 1231 Match the clinical area to the type of error related to the surgical department: Staff error = Lack of adequately trained personnel. Infection Control = Failure to adhere to proper cleaning procedures. Res Ipsa Loquitur = The principle that negligence is obvious. Preoperative Evaluation = Inadequate patient assessment prior to surgery. `Res Ipsa Loquitur` is when negligence is so clear that it speaks for itself. 231 / 1231 Match the following concepts with the goals of a Just Culture: Report Errors = Encourages staff to report errors without fear of punishment. Learn from Mistakes = Focuses on improving systems rather than blaming individuals. Accountability = Holds individuals responsible for willful misconduct. Improve Safety = Enhances patient safety by addressing system issues. A Just Culture aims to balance accountability with a supportive environment for reporting and learning from errors. 232 / 1231 Match the human factors to how they contribute to medical errors: Fatigue = Impairs decision-making and attention. Stress = Reduces ability to multitask effectively. Poor Communication = Leads to misunderstandings and errors in treatment. Bias = Influences decisions based on preconceived notions. Human factors play a significant role in medical errors, impacting decision-making and communication. 233 / 1231 Match the following elements with the steps of a Root Cause Analysis (RCA): Define the problem = Clearly articulate what went wrong. Gather Evidence = Collect all relevant data and facts. Identify Issues = Determine factors that contributed to the problem. Find Root Causes = Uncover the underlying reasons for the issues. Root cause analysis helps identify not just what happened, but why it happened, to prevent recurrence. 234 / 1231 Match the following terms with their definitions related to patient safety: Sentinel Event = An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious injury. Adverse Event = An injury to a patient caused by medical management. Near Miss = An error that could have caused harm but did not. Never Event = A serious reportable event that should never happen. Understanding the difference between these terms is crucial for effective risk management and reporting in healthcare. 235 / 1231 While healthcare providers have a duty to refrain from professional negligence, patients/consumers equally have a duty to refrain from negligently exposing themselves to harm. True False Individuals have duty to refrain from negligently exposing themselves to harm. Patients have rights, but also resposibilities. 236 / 1231 In a FMEA, after identifying the failure of a potential treatment you can assume the effect on the patient and that it will result in minimal impact. True False That is a dangerous action and a critical error may develop. 237 / 1231 When performing a sentinel event review, it is okay to have only people directly involved included on the team as that is all that is needed. True False For a sentinel event, you need a team. It is multidisciplinary and from all areas of your facility. 238 / 1231 There are never incentives for a nurse to not report something because nurses want to do a good job always. True False There are some incentives for a nurse to not report something. 239 / 1231 An enforceable standard of care is what determines negligence. False True Enforceable standard of care is what determines negligence. 240 / 1231 Use of data should be limited when first developing a program because they are not important at that time. True False You should use all data available to you, they are always important. 241 / 1231 The 'To Err is Human' report highlighted that the biggest challenge is writing good rules. True False Actually the biggest challenge is to establish a 'just culture.’ 242 / 1231 Conducting a root cause analysis is primarily valuable for identifying who is responsible for an error. True False Root cause analysis is important for finding out what caused an event in order that it can never happen again. 243 / 1231 A patient who had surgery on the wrong body part would be a sentinel event. True False Operating on the wrong body part fits Joint Commision defintion. The patient experienced harm. 244 / 1231 The Joint Commission's Sentinel Event Policy primarily focuses on punishing negligent staff. True False Instead, they help you to solve problems. 245 / 1231 When a sentinel event happens, it does not require a report. True False When there is a sentinel event, it should be volunterly reported. 246 / 1231 One of the critical steps in the RCA process is ensuring there was a strong leader involved with the mistake. True False Rather they were trying to analyze and to solve problems. 247 / 1231 Adverse events always indicate a need for disciplinary action. True False Sometimes adverse events need changes in the processes or procedures. 248 / 1231 Family members can serve as effective and reliable interpreters. True False Use professional interpreters when communicating with the patient. 249 / 1231 In the Swiss Cheese Model, the active failures are the holes in the model. True False Latent failures or conditions are represented by holes in the Swiss cheese model. 250 / 1231 In the context of managing reliability, identifying and addressing active failures is sufficient for preventing incidents. True False Both active and latent failures should are looked into in the context of incidents management and high reliability. 251 / 1231 Redesigning a system is a solution for eliminating 'human error'. True False One response or 'solution' is to redesign the system; however, other solutions such as consoling/coahing the worker are also options. 252 / 1231 Applying the correct rule consistently, even if the outcome is adverse, indicates a process is at the 'risk behavior' level. True False Applying the correct rule consistently indicates a well managed process; however, the description fits 'human error' more accurately. 'Risk behavior' implies a conscious decision to deviate, while in human error correct rules are followed but mistakes occur. 253 / 1231 A Just Culture emphasizes reliance on short-term memory to promote quick decision-making. True False A Just Culture does not emphasize reliance on short term memory. Instead, writing things down is encouraged. 254 / 1231 A key component of a High-Reliability Organization is a flattened hierarchy to promote open communication. True False Flattened hierarchy promotes open communication for effective team-like operations. 255 / 1231 One of the principles of HROs is to always simplify complex problems. True False HRO's are complex, so simplifying is a trap and avoiding overly simple explanations is critical. 256 / 1231 One key attribute of High Reliability Organizations (HROs) is their ability to eliminate all sources of risk. True False High Reliability Organizations are systems without mistakes over long periods of time, they are not completely risk free. 257 / 1231 In a 'Just Culture,' only reckless behavior and not systemic failings are addressed. True False In 'Just Culture,' systematic failings as well as reckless behavior are addressed. 258 / 1231 In 'Just Culture,' the primary aim is to punish individuals for human error to promote accountability. True False Just Culture aims to not punishment for human error. 259 / 1231 In a healthcare setting, SBAR primarily functions as an analytical tool. True False In a healthcare SBAR acts a communication tool. 260 / 1231 When treating a patient who speaks a different language, direct use of family members is the best way to assure correct interpreting. True False It is better use professional interpreters when communicating with the patient. 261 / 1231 In healthcare, the term 'high-risk clinical areas' exclusively refers to surgical units. True False High-risk clinical areas include but are not limited to obstetrics, emergency, and radiology departments. 262 / 1231 The Patient Safety domain accounts for 50% of the CPHRM exam's content. True False The Patient Safety domain accounts for 25% of the CPHRM exam's content. 263 / 1231 In exam answering strategies, it's recommended to initially focus on the answers that seem plausible at first glance. True False The recommendation is to make predictions as you read the question followed by eliminating answers. 264 / 1231 An 'extreme phrase' in an exam question always signals a true statement. True False Extreme phrases should invite closer inspection and may signal a false statement and not always the opposite. 265 / 1231 For CPHRM renewal, successful re-examination requires payment of a renewal fee. True False If renewing through re-examination, no renewal fee is required. 266 / 1231 The "Application" domain in the CPHRM exam assesses the ability to recall specific information. True False The "Application" domain assesses the ability to apply knowledge to new or changing situations. The "Recall" domain focuses on recognising specific information. 267 / 1231 To be eligible for the CPHRM, candidates must have at least a master's degree. True False A BA degree or higher is sufficient. Candidates must also have other qualifications to be eligible for the CPHRM. 268 / 1231 Risk managers primarily focus on financial risks within healthcare organizations. True False Risk managers deal with prevention, reduction, and control of loss which impact patients, visitors, physicians and other colleagues. 269 / 1231 AMP/PSI administers the CPHRM examination. True False AMP/PSI is responsible for administering the CPHRM exam. 270 / 1231 The CPHRM exam is administered in 3 hours. True False The CPHRM exam is completed in 2 hours. 271 / 1231 The CPHRM exam consists of seven content domains. True False The CPHRM exam is divided into five content domains. 272 / 1231 A passing score on the CPHRM exam results in the award of a certificate. True False Passing the CPHRM exam results in a credential, not a certificate. 273 / 1231 The CPHRM examination includes both scored and pre-test questions. True False The CPHRM examination includes 110 multiple-choice questions, where 100 are scored and 10 are pre-test questions. 274 / 1231 During which stage is most important for communication within a process of a sentinel event? Following sentinel requirements. During The Root cause. Complying with Joint Commission requirements. As the system goes towards action. A good sentinel event follows a great Root cause; action is needed! 275 / 1231 What causes Medical errors? Communication problems. Information flow, Human-error. Inadequate processes. Communication. Hospitals require professional communication; it improves patient health. 276 / 1231 For a Patient Safety Organization (PSO), can? Does not create harm. Just be made up. Can engage with patient safety and just to hire the right manager. Can engage with patient safety organization, but just to hire the manager as part of that effort. A PSO can engage with another PSO with the right candidate. 277 / 1231 Once a process receives discovery, what improves it in an organization? Have empathy with you. We have empathy. We have compassion. We listen to what occurred. When doing discovery, ‘have empathy’ with the patient during the process. 278 / 1231 What is "most feared by" safety program candidates? To tell what truly occurred. Telling the manager the event. To have it be written for any manager. To be honest. The most feared activity is that staff members tell what occurred. 279 / 1231 To improve bedside report with shift changes, which assist? Review the medical events. Review each event as it occurs. Use the SBAR reports. Avoid all the steps. Hospitals require a clear report with a SBAR assists to understand quickly. 280 / 1231 Select the correct selection for Human Factors. It only occurs when a mistake occurs. We focus on this area daily. It focuses on systems of issues attributable to human factors. We do not need them, because we hire good talented employees. By doing this, it lowers the issues to individuals when an event occurs, it helps improve the process. 281 / 1231 If a client is having a team create "Solutions for Safety", what is something the group must avoid? Review solutions. Improve from the process. Review past near misses. Create a blame environment. When looking into improvement, the client must avoid anything that causes blame. 282 / 1231 Active failures are different from latent failures, in which? Active are apparent more to those harmed. Active may be non-human to those harmed. Latent cause harm to those involved. Latent must involve a human aspect. Active errors are apparent to those harmed. 283 / 1231 When building the program, what is important? What the patients feel occurs. Following the taxonomy regulations. Following what the government says. Adding as much money as you can. The building that is most important follows what patients feel. 284 / 1231 How can hospitals meet the challenge to improve practices for its customers who now understand more? New policies New laws New Taxonomy. Increase learning Improve learning. 285 / 1231 What is a "high" attribute related to the team? Operations Responsiveness Improvement Cost-effective Hospitals look to improve as an attribute. 286 / 1231 According to the CPHRM certification guide, high-risk clinical specialties has led to which area? Obstetrics General surgery Neurological surgery Emergency medicine The answer is Obstetrics. 287 / 1231 Prior to recommending a new safety initiative, a consultant must: Guarantee that there will be no initial pushback from staff. Ensure that the recommended initiative can be implemented within the existing budget. Present leadership with examples of safety failures at competing institutions. Assess the organization's readiness for change and safety culture. Consultants must first get the lay of the land. 288 / 1231 If most mistakes within an organization are blamed on employees, which factor is improved? Employees enjoy their jobs. Honesty is lowered. Every event receives process discovery. They do not fear speaking up. The most feared activity, honesty is lowered to tell what occurred. 289 / 1231 In a high-reliability organization, which statement best illustrates the approach to failure? Errors are attributed to human error, and individuals are retrained. All employees are held strictly accountable for any deviation from protocol. Mistakes should be seen as a problem with a given employee. Failures are seen as learning opportunities to improve systems. HROs leverage mistakes to improve the processes. 290 / 1231 If your hospital faces challenges to communicate to other professionals, select what helps facilitate this. Use SBAR reports. CMS guidelines. The Joint Commission. Communication should have a specific timeline. Hospitals require professional communication. Using a SBAR tool assists to understand quickly. 291 / 1231 After discovering a series of near-miss events, what should the first step be in addressing them? Rewarding individuals for reporting near-miss events to encourage further reporting. Conducting a thorough root cause analysis to understand the underlying issues. Ignoring the near-miss events, as they did not result in actual harm. Implementing stricter disciplinary measures for those involved. Root cause is the first step. 292 / 1231 You're tasked with implementing a new safety protocol across several departments. What should you do first? Immediately start training all staff members on the new protocol. Begin disciplinary measures to increase likelihood of adoption. Consult with key stakeholders and staff to gather feedback and ensure buy-in. Send out a memo announcing the new protocol and its implications. Getting everyone on board increases effectiveness. 293 / 1231 Select the correct statement. Staff fears telling the truth or what occurred. It is not important for the leadership to listen and learn for improving safety. The staff requires to not follow the set safety guidelines. Each employee requires a bonus to create safety. Staff must feel safe to be honest. 294 / 1231 If a clinical area performs a failure and effect of an analysis (FMEA), what is the purpose of the task? Address barriers of cost to failure causes. Track progress and evaluate impact. Implement the recommendations. Proactively minimize harm from a failure. Redesign the system and not cost. 295 / 1231 What is the purpose of a tool designed to evaluate process? It punishes the process. Provides clear understanding to follow the guideline. To pro-actively minimize harm from failure. Remove the chance of failure. These improve safety and not to punish, or remove it. 296 / 1231 If a medical error occurs, what is the first priority in most healthcare organizations? Medical tourism to countries with lower liability costs. Suing for negligence. Fostering transparency, the second step in the process. Following a sentinel event, prevention action items are identified. Following a sentinel event, prevention action items are identified. 297 / 1231 Which best correlates the definition of Taxonomy? Stop anyone from billing. Identifies how severe the outcome is. Joint Commission regulation. A CMS program. A taxonomy identifies how severe the outcome is. 298 / 1231 Select which answer is best. A taxonomy creates transparency. A taxonomy is best for a CMS consultant. A taxonomy defines events. A taxonomy improves billing compliance. A taxonomy is defining events. 299 / 1231 In applying the principles of a 'Just Culture', when is disciplinary action MOST appropriate? When a near-miss event is identified. When an employee makes an unintentional error. In cases of reckless behavior or willful misconduct. Following any adverse patient outcome. Disciplinary action is most appropriate in the event an employee is reckless or displays willful misconduct. 300 / 1231 Which is the best way to respond, that displays a "Just" safety culture? Is a process to remove blame. Is having no punishment for human error. Implement a Taxonomy immediately. Must focus on the CMS guidelines. Having no punishment ensures individuals report the events and it displays a "Just" culture. 301 / 1231 What is a 'Sentinel Event' primarily related to? A requirement of the Joint Commission. Death or harm. Is a process. A reporting tactic. A sentinel event indicates serious death or harm to patients. 302 / 1231 Within a Just Culture framework, which action would be considered appropriate after a healthcare worker makes an unintentional error? Termination of employment to send a message about safety. Mandatory suspension without pay. Retraining and a review of existing protocols. Public reprimand to reinforce adherence to rules. In a Just Culture, unintentional errors merit retraining, process reviews, or other corrective actions aimed at system improvement. 303 / 1231 Which of the following is the definition of high-reliability organizations? Have a non punitive environment Must follow the guidelines of CMS. Operate complex systems without mistakes over long periods of time. Have processes of reliability. High reliability organizations operate complex systems without mistakes over long periods of time. 304 / 1231 Using Reason’s Swiss Cheese Model, which action would be most effective in preventing an error from reaching a patient? Increasing the number of steps in a high-risk procedure. Removing all individual responsibility for safety to promote teamwork. Punishing the individual who made the error to deter future mistakes. Implementing a series of redundant safeguards. Adding further safeguards ensures the active event does not harm by blocking each point of failure. 305 / 1231 According to Reason’s Swiss Cheese Model of accident causation, what do the 'holes' in the slices of cheese represent? Resources available for risk mitigation. Active and latent failures within the system. Successful safety protocols correctly implemented. Opportunities for staff training and development. The holes in the Swiss Cheese Model stand for active and latent failures. 306 / 1231 What would be a barrier for an organization to improve? The administration understands the effects. During process discovery, near-miss events are addressed, and they feel mistakes ignored by the administration do not have that much effect. An oncology department makes a mistake. The actions include listen and have empathy. If an organization does not understand mistakes have an effect, it can cause problems with disclosure. 307 / 1231 In the patient’s perspective, which is most important in bedside clear reporting? The actions 'listen,' 'have empathy.' Improving bedside-report. The reporting of what occurred in the process. CMS is primarily related to 'cost' for 'Never Events.' Actions such as ‘listen’ and ‘have empathy’ show the patient that you are listening to their concerns and not making light of them. 308 / 1231 When patients for whom English is not their first language require assistance, what is the most appropriate approach? Let an interpreter choose what should be said. Allowing family members interpret. Using professional interpreters. Seeking insights from other professional interpreters. Using professional interpreters ensures accurate communication, reduces risks of misunderstanding, and complies with regulatory requirements. 309 / 1231 If a candidate fails the CPHRM examination, what is the primary implication regarding their professional standing? They can no longer practice risk management. They must complete a remediation program before retesting. They do not receive a certificate, but still hold a credential. Their professional license may be suspended. The CPHRM is a credential, not a certificate. Therefore, failing the exam does not result in a certificate. 310 / 1231 According to the information provided, how many scored multiple-choice questions make up the CPHRM examination? 100 85 110 125 The CPHRM examination consists of 110 multiple choice questions, with 100 questions contributing to the final score and 10 pre-test questions. 311 / 1231 For Certified Professionals of Healthcare Risk Management, what is one way to renew the certification? Publishing three articles related to risk management in peer-reviewed journals. Attending five healthcare conferences. Successfully re-taking the CPHRM examination. Accumulating 20 hours of volunteer service in healthcare settings. CPHRM certification can be renewed by successfully re-taking the examination or by completing contact hours of continuing professional education. 312 / 1231 What, do staff " most fear", which lowers honesty to tell what occurred? Fear That they might lose something, or be seen in a bad light To appear that are not worthy To appear they are always mistakes 313 / 1231 Which area does the Joint Commission require attention, in a organization's safety processes? To "find fault", at all stages. Have "Action Steps" and or "RCA" that all personnel will follow. To make all process new. That all people know that accreditation is number "one", The TJC required has to be on "Actionable" ideas, and RCA to avoid repeat mistakes! 314 / 1231 What must an organization implement first? Buy new product Use survey New policy first! What is needed", before new what we want What "should be" must proceed what "is" before to truly improve. 315 / 1231 What is "MOST important " when "building" a new safety culture program? That upper/middle/all leadership will adopt the idea, promote, engage, and defend the new process first!. The "tools" of review. The amount of money will will spend. Simply focus on "Accreditation" The upper most levels have to take, defend, improve the system. If leadership fails its employees follow. 316 / 1231 You wish you "improve bedside-report" by making it clear. Which of there improves it? Use the phrase, "We believe",," We thing", or "This might be" Just "not give a name ", if mistake Document after the care. Share " facts and listen" before you act. Listen First! By giving facts and giving the customer a clear mind, it then builds trust, which will give you the permission to go forth. 317 / 1231 To help your clients in "all care events" What might you help "improve", that will "assist" in the proper safety? Focus all-in on" data, and metrics" after every event. Make every step, visual. Simply just provide a SBAR note. Make better steps Visual cues help with retention, improvement, and help with memory recall, therefore decreasing error. 318 / 1231 How can hospitals meet the "new" challenge of our customer now understanding "more", of our practices? Have a doctor explain it Ignore this fact Simply educate more so they do not think Be transparent on all steps In today's age of information, we can not rely on "only" our "skill", today they must know everything you know 319 / 1231 During process discovery, you uncover several near-miss events that were addressed, but ignored by administration. To the administration, they felt mistakes do not have that much effect. What barrier seems to be the problem, for 'disclosure'? Staff is used to this issue and has "no " trust That they see it and the leadership sees it with "zero emphasis" The fear of a "lawsuit", or reputation Safety's "results" and "data", is not high value Leadership tone is very important, when the 'tone' does not equal the tone of the team," it signals and create more issues. 320 / 1231 CMS is primarily related to "cost" for "Never Events", but for "Safety Practice". Which area are they MOST interested in? Just "Accidental Harm." and or "Harm from Care' Events that should never of happened with modern Events that can become a lawsuit cost A simple review of events For obvious reasons is "prevention". 321 / 1231 What is "Required", to achieve "Success" with a patients "Disclosure"? Follow up with the recommendations That all" is" reviewed with all team members A check is given to cover the pain We have to provide "Honest Communication", Having Honesty builds "Trust" for future interactions' 322 / 1231 The actions "'listen," 'have empathy'" are BEST used during with which step to the patient, after an event? To simply review" what occurred. " to review with leadership. While calling legal to inform and retain an attitude While documenting the "action", after everything occurred First" Disclosure and "honest communication", so you find an action plan. There has to first be proper communication to the customer after all must be empathy and "understanding". 323 / 1231 What must a consultant "first" achieve, before they recommend an action to" improve" safety? Achieved his check and approval from legal Reviewed the policy and process for "Safety Culture", "RCA" and "HAC". The need to review and to be "non-purnitive" in their methods. All of these Safety comes before everything. All must first be reviewed. 324 / 1231 What step MOST improves human factor errors? Disregarding all staff that are old Create a worklist that has no technology interrupters. Assure all staff have 10 years experience Create a checklist that is usable and forces thinking "Before Operation" Using a robust checklist enhances awareness and causes less 'roting' 325 / 1231 Which statement displays the "Active Error" in a series of events? Design of the actual system is clunky. Broken supply inventory in an area that might have issues. Actual Act of the personnel has an impact that is seen immediately Shortage of proper "staffing", because that has a slow result An active error shows a clear mistake right now. A potential Active Error over time shows a broken system with latent steps. 326 / 1231 An organization receives a complaint of an egregious mistake in the oncology medication dispensing process. How does an organization immediately improve and create a new 'safety' process? Create 4 levels of checks Re-design the "system" for each person has a safe way to engage Create a 'console' that has a nurse's approval alone Improve "workflow" with an immediate SBAR to team Redesign of each workflow process step and what a team-member can do is the best way to improve all areas of work 327 / 1231 What response BEST correlates with having a "Just" culture? Medical mistakes are simply part of life For every error there must always be consequences Hiding ones errors is simply patient for protection Medical errors are a reflection of the system to be improved. Having a Just Culture simply emphasizes "system" as the potential problem, in addition, it must emphasis the goal is now to point blame, but to better heal wounded system. 328 / 1231 What is the role of a 'taxonomy' for a risk consultant? Has a focus on hierarchy Has a focus on blame For identifying, and implementing the findings For the defining and classifying patient safety events, which is essential for consistent data comparison. Taxonomy must have proper way to study, codify, and have a way future people better know and avoid that mistake again. 329 / 1231 To what does the phrase, "Stop the Line" directly refer? To create an opportunity to identify root causes of system problems To be in real-time quality assurance To take retrospective quality assurance To show you that need for more authority Stopping the line is for real-time quality assurance to avoid possible mistake. 330 / 1231 Which is the best methodology for a department to determine every "at promise" (unsafe) condition within its process? Root-Cause Analysis Chart FEMA (Failure Mode Effect Analysis PDSA Chart SWOT analysis FEMA is the most common way a department proactively studies its potential risks. 331 / 1231 Healthcare organizations must have interprofessional communication. Which choice is the tool for clear communication? Patient complain Family conference Incident report SBAR An emphasis on clear communication using tools such as SBAR or "Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation." 332 / 1231 How might an organization promote 'patient safety' to prevent problems from potentially arising? Avoiding open discussions of a mistake for fear or legal reasons. Only focusing on mistakes when they are egregious. Focusing on the legal advice the mistake might cost Incentivizing honesty to better discover, understand, and address unsafe conditions or processes Institutions that encourage honesty are more likely to learn of real concerns before an error occurs. 333 / 1231 How would a healthcare organization prioritize their patient safety in a facility that has a limited number of resources? Make zero-tolerance for errors through punitive Focusing on addressing "Active Failures" from each staff member Incentivize and reward team for discovering a latent system flaw Concentration on external regulatory agency reports Discovering latent flaws and systems for future error reduction requires the most important focus so that no event might pose harm again. 334 / 1231 What action demonstrates an 'organization's commitment to transparency' after a serious adverse event? Having internal reviews to identify causes while avoiding public disclosure to not harm reputation Providing a general statement to the media after verifying the claims are legitimate while keeping internal reviews private Waiting to disclose details until the event has been thoroughly investigated for 6 months Promptly inform relevant parties once the occurrence has passed Rapid and transparent communication with all relevant parties involved (patient, legal authorities, etc.) 335 / 1231 How does 'high-reliability' organization structure enhance healthcare in complex situations? By identifying high-risk clinical specialties and addressing patient safety issues related to the area By implementing processes that help workers overcome their implicit biases through psychological counseling By ensuring that technology replaces human workers, thus reducing dependence upon human fallibility By promoting mindfulness and teamwork in an effort to anticipate and mitigate error HROs focus on safety. Constant awareness is important in preventing potential system errors. 336 / 1231 In what ways did "To Err is Human" influence the design of healthcare systems and processes? Healthcare quality measurement practices were abandoned. Public reporting of safety data shifted from quality improvement projects. Enhanced investment allocated toward advanced medical technology to make sure human error was completely eliminated from medical treatments. Focus shifted from blaming individuals for errors to understanding systematic causes. System design principles were recognized to prevent errors. Healthcare shifted its primary objective to reducing costs. Emphasis was solely on compliance with regulatory frameworks. This publication caused an increased emphasis to understanding the systems-level reasons for mistakes. 337 / 1231 In a healthcare setting, the use of SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) during patient handoffs aims primarily to improve what? Efficiency of documentation Clarity and consistency of communication Accuracy of billing processes Patient satisfaction scores The SBAR model supports standardization and consistency in communication among healthcare professionals. 338 / 1231 Which methodology would be most effective for a hospital aiming to reduce medication errors across all departments? Root Cause Analysis to identify and address the deepest reasons for past medication errors Failure Mode and Effects Analysis because it proactively identifies potential failure points in the medication process PDSA cycles to test various process of medication changes on medication administrations SWOT analysis because it assesses medication process strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats FMEA is a proactive measure that allows an organization to identify areas to improve before mistakes occur. 339 / 1231 The team uncovers an incident where a surgeon ignored a safety checklist, resulting in an infection. What action reflects the principles of a Just Culture? Increasing checklist audits for the operating room staff Analyzing the factors influencing the surgeon's decision to bypass the checklist Implementing mandatory checklist training for all surgeons Recommending immediate license suspension A key aspect of Just Culture is analyzing the system's role in an incident, so changes can be made. 340 / 1231 Within an organization with a fully developed safety culture, what behavior would employees consistently demonstrate? Questioning existing processes and reporting all near-misses. Reporting errors primarily to avoid personal blame. Concealing errors to maintain a positive departmental image. Adhering strictly to protocols without questioning their relevance. In a high-reliability (developed safety) organization, employees display constant awareness and question the process. Open communication is essential for preventing potential problems. 341 / 1231 Which strategy would be MOST effective in improving a healthcare organization's response to medical errors, fostering a culture of safety and enabling improved patient outcomes? Establishing detailed protocols that are strictly enforced without deviation. Providing frequent training sessions on the importance of following procedures. Increasing the severity of disciplinary actions for employees involved in medical errors. Implementing thorough analyses of medical errors to identify systemic causes. Analyzing errors and working to identify systemic causes is the best course of action because it facilitates meaningful change. 342 / 1231 Which action aligns with valuing a 'just culture' after a medication error occurred? Reviewing system protocols and decision-making processes to understand failures and enhance safety Implementing mandatory double checks on all medication administrations carried out by that nurse Terminating the employment of the nurse to send a clear message about accountability Mandating remedial training specifically for the nurse involved on medication administration A just culture balances accountability with learning and promotes an environment where errors are seen as opportunities to improve systems. 343 / 1231 Which strategy would be most effective to shift an organization from a reactive safety approach to a proactive one? Establish a reporting system where potential hazards, rather than only actual incidents, are actively reported and analyzed Increase disciplinary measures for employees involved in safety breaches. Regularly update safety protocols based on external regulatory changes only Focus on conducting thorough investigations after incidents occur, without looking for potential hazards A proactive approach to safety requires institutions to actively identify potential hazards before they result in harm, so they can be addressed. 344 / 1231 A healthcare institution implemented a new electronic health record system, but patient wait times in the emergency department increased. Which action exemplifies a 'system thinking' approach to resolve this unintended consequence? Limiting the types of patients that the emergency department can admit Retraining all emergency department staff on basic computer skills Implementing stricter performance metrics for emergency department staff Analyzing how the new system impacts workflow and communication across all departments A systems thinking approach considers the interconnectedness of different parts of the organization and how changes in one area affect others. 345 / 1231 If a healthcare organization prioritizes adherence to set routines over critical evaluation in complex situations, which type of safety culture does it most likely exhibit? Reactive Calculative Proactive Pathological A calculative safety culture relies on systematic approaches and adherence to protocols, which can sometimes overshadow adaptability and critical evaluation needed for genuine safety improvements. 346 / 1231 A healthcare provider uses a cloud-based electronic health record (EHR) system. Match the key responsibilities related to data security: Healthcare Provider responsibilities = Training staff on HIPAA regulations and data security protocols. Cloud Provider responsibilities = Implementing appropriate encryption and access controls to protect data confidentiality. These responsibilities show how liability is shared with 3rd parties. Contracts should define these details and ensure both sides are in compliance. 347 / 1231 Consider a scenario where a major data breach has occurred. Match the correct response with the responsible party: Hospital Risk Manager = Assess the extent of the breach and implement immediate containment measures. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) = Lead the technical investigation to determine the root cause and vulnerabilities exploited. Privacy Officer = Oversee the legal and regulatory aspects of breach notification. Public Relations Team = Manage external communication and develop a transparent and appropriate messaging strategy. Coordination and expertise are essential after a major data-breach. All responses are needed and necessary, but it is important to know which teams own which task. 348 / 1231 Match the following events with their corresponding regulatory implications under HIPAA: Data breach = Mandatory reporting to HHS and affected individuals within a specified timeframe. Denial of access to medical records = Potential enforcement action and required correction of practices. Disclosure of PHI to unauthorized parties = Civil or criminal penalties based on intent and harm caused. Failure to conduct a risk assessment = Opportunity for regulatory oversight and plan of rectification. These consequences demonstrate the risks associated failing to comply with the rules on patient data. A plan of rectification is often required to demonstrate the organization's committment to improvement 349 / 1231 Match the following data security terms with their correct definitions: Encryption = Converting data into a code to prevent unauthorized access. De-identification = Removing identifying information from data such that it cannot be linked back to an individual. Data minimization = Collecting only the minimum amount of personal data necessary for a specified purpose. Access control = Limiting access to information and resources to authorized users. These methods are essential for safeguarding patient data. A strong understanding of what each one entails is crucial to selecting the right security measures. 350 / 1231 Match the following regulations with their respective scope regarding patient data: HIPAA = Governs the privacy and security of protected health information (PHI). HITECH Act = Strengthens HIPAA by addressing privacy and security concerns related to electronic transmission of health information. EMTALA = Ensures access to emergency medical treatment regardless of ability to pay. ADA = Prohibits discrimination based on disability in employment, public services, and accommodations. These regulations are critical for governing data handling in healthcare. Note that EMTALA and ADA have implications, but HIPAA/HITECH are specifically built around data. 351 / 1231 Match the following potential scenarios with the most legally sound course of HIPAA complaint handling: Patient requests psychotherapy records = Withhold access to notes; HIPAA gives a patient the right to a medical report except psychotherapy record. Denying access = Deny because it violates HIPAA or Inspecting PHI or copying for 30 days is available except psychotherapy notes. When a patient finds that a staff is discussing patient record with a friend in front of client, and staff responds with 'The client accepted'. = Take immediate action, cannot share with out written or verbal accept unless authorized by law to share. and may need to educate the workforce. A hospital finds out that the staff and providers do not know the nature of a patient’s severe disability status = Take action but review when an employer may decline to hire a disabled applicant. HIPAA rules give explicit guidelines on appropriate use and treatment of medical and private health records. 352 / 1231 Match the EMTALA rule with its correct description, in the context of emergency medical treatment: Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) = Requires Medicare/Medicaid hospitals with emergency services to conduct medical screening and stabilize patients. Civil monetary penalties = Penalties of up to $50,000 per violation can be issued for violations including hospitals and physicians. Mandatory reporting = Hospitals need to report financial “dumps,” etc. Sanctions = Can occur via the termination of a Medicare provider agreement. EMTALA's monetary penalties and reporting rules exist to ensure equitable access in all medical situations. 353 / 1231 Match the EMTALA sanction with the corresponding scenario: Monetary penalties = A hospital fails to report a suspected improper transfer within 72 hours. CMS termination = A hospital routinely fails to stabilize patients with emergency medical conditions before transfer. SLA site license authority = A facility repeatedly demonstrates severe violations of patient safety standards. OIG exclusion = An individual physician is found to have violated EMTALA regulations repeatedly and intentionally. EMTALA violations can result in CMS termination, OIG exclusion, SLA site license authority, and monetary penalties. 354 / 1231 Match the CMS EMTALA guideline with the appropriate individual's role in a situation where an on-call specialist physician refuses to come to the emergency department (ED) to assess a patient: On-call specialist physician = May be subject to penalties for failing to respond, depending on hospital bylaws and contractual obligations. Chief Medical Officer = May be the one to provide guidance or intervention in resolving the situation. Chief Executive Officer = Ultimately responsible for ensuring compliance with EMTALA regulations within the hospital. Emergency Department physician = Responsible for initiating the request for specialist consultation and advocating for the patient's needs. CMs EMTALA guidelines outline the responsibilities of involved parties when an on-call specialist physician refuses to assess a patient. 355 / 1231 Match the EMTALA requirements with their corresponding actions a hospital with emergency services must perform: Conduct a medical screening = Determine if an emergency medical condition exists. Stabilize a patient = Provide treatment to prevent the condition from worsening. Transfer a patient = Ensure the receiving facility has the capacity and agrees to accept the patient, and provide appropriate medical records. Avoid billing practices = Refrain from delaying or denying care based on a patient's insurance status or ability to pay. EMTALA requires hospitals to provide a medical screening examination to determine if an emergency medical condition exists, stabilize patients, and ensures appropriate transfers of patients, and unbiased billing process. 356 / 1231 To avoid hippa penalties with a large business you will need? Must have: = Business has the HIPPA Has to have a = PHI to check Has to have done: = Due diligence Check what to the = Contract and the law. 357 / 1231 Following the emergency hipa security steps what should be part of it but not? Important parts to know with it but need to be careful = Release of patient Health Records. The HIPPA safety part = Administrative Guard Is this a good situation to be apart of = The HIPPA HIPPA are = Federal law 358 / 1231 An employer may decline to hire a disabled applicant otherwise qualified for the job with: A disability. = However, employers are prohibited to ask about their severity. Following ADA all employment = Will be in the labor law. Employers all have = Employment application policies and benefits 359 / 1231 The risk manager should be vigilant and monitor what to keep the quality of medical care with who? The risk manager should: What you can: = Medical records department personnel What you can't: = Defense Council before seeing it. = Participate in general orientation 360 / 1231 A candidate for whom you would be a supervisor has a disability. Match which of the questions during the interview by pairing do, and don't. Should ask: = Meeting Organization; Shouldn't ask: = Citizenship. 361 / 1231 A candidate for whom you would be a supervisor has a disability. What information about the person can't you ask for? You can ask: = About being asked about anything relating to offer. You cannot ask: = About their severity relating to the job. 362 / 1231 Match the following terms with their correct definitions related to the ADA Title III: A public accommodation = must not impose or apply eligibility criteria that screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability or any class of individuals with disabilities Surcharges can impose legibility. = requirements that are necessary for safe information 363 / 1231 Match the following scenarios as either a HIPAA violation or not: The medical chart is lost. = HIPAA violation The physician follows proper procedure for accessing and updating records. = Not a HIPAA violation. The medical chart was discussed with someone. = Not a HIPAA violation 364 / 1231 Match the obligations per regulations on the following entities: Off-campus outpatient facility: = Providing a medical screening examination within its capabilities and transport to the hospital. EMTALA requires: = Under AHRQ agency for research. What are things that require special attention?: = The emergency treatment 365 / 1231 Match the following changes with the EMTALA Regulations in 2003: All hospitals must: = Have physicians on call 24 hours a day, seven days a week; Physicians are not allowed to. = Schedule elective procedures when they are on call for emergencies The EMTALA regulations: = No longer apply to inpatients. - False 366 / 1231 Match the characteristics from the following options: EMTALA does not apply to residents = False The responsibility to determine initial emergency response level is = Dispatch personnel The following has the responsibility to determine in hospital physical? = All Staff 367 / 1231 Match the scenario to the appropriate guidelines to follow under EMTALA. Patient presenting to physical therapy for an outpatient visit the ED has: = An EMTALA obligation to screen and stabilize this patient A trauma patient is at a hospital without neurosurgery the referral facility. = Is obligated to take this patient. Residents must make sure it meets hospital policy. The responsibility to determine initial emergency response level follows: = The policies for emergency action. 368 / 1231 As the risk manager, how should you use extreme caution in all communications regarding patient care as it is part of legal/regulatory. Should make note at the patient level? = The communication is part of a medical screening. Should make note on other reports.? = The examination by urologist would be considered as part of a stabilization process. After providing a medical screening exam, the orthopedist refuses call to action by the ER Doc = Under EMTALA guidelines, the emergency department physician assesses patient. 369 / 1231 Match the appropriate guidelines. Under EMTALA regulations, the medical chart must: = Make efforts to arrange to complete the medical staff. Medical charts: = Part of the medical screening examination 370 / 1231 Match the actions with the correct guidelines. A 36-week pregnant woman presents to the emergency department with labor pains. She is not registered or triaged in the emergency department, but is sent directly to labor and delivery, Which of the following is true? = This is acceptable as long as: it is consistent with hospital policy; the governing body is aware the labor and delivery nurses are doing screening exams; and the labor and delivery nurses have orientation to the hospital medical screening examination policy The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) permits a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening... = Allowed by the state's nursing practice act. A central log must be kept of everyone who comes to the Emergency Department seeking emergent care. Such logs must be maintained by departments that: = Offer non-scheduled primary care services 371 / 1231 Match the action as a violation of EMTALA guidelines: Hospital has no neurosurgical services. The emergency physician contacts the local regional referral center that has a specialty neurosurgical unit. Resident on call refuses the transfer when beds were available. = The resident on call was violating the Nondiscrimination Provision if refusal of transfer. Patient presents to physical therapy for an outpatient visit. During PT the patient develops chest pain and is rushed to the emergency department. Under the new regulations the hospital has an EMTALA obligation to screen and stabilize this patient. = False. Emergency medical technicians are always the responsibility to determine initial emergency response level. = The initial EMS determination has to be done in policies & procedures approved by the medical director. A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a fever and an earache.The emergency physician performs a complete examination. = It is the medical screening exam, which follows the emergency medical conditions, and EMTALA applies 372 / 1231 An emergency department physician calls the orthopedic surgeon on call. After a brief discussion, the ED physician requests that the surgeon come to the hospital to examine the patient and provide care. The surgeon refuses. According to CMS EMTALA guidelines, which of the following individuals should make the decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient? On-call specialist physician = Responsible for own patients. Chief Medical Officer = Acts as a liaison. Chief Executive Officer = Delegated oversight. Emergency department physician = Makes decision to come in for consult. 373 / 1231 Match the following actions with whether they are required components of EMTALA: Conduct a medical screening = Required for emergency medical conditions. Stabilize a patient = To the extent of the facility's capability prior to transfer. Provide medical treatment = For all patients who come to the ER. Avoid billing patients without insurance = A core consideration. Adherence to EMTALA guidelines ensures that all patients receive necessary medical care, regardless of their ability to pay. 374 / 1231 Match the reporting requirements with the hospital action required under EMTALA: Mandatory reporting of suspected improper transfers = Hospitals are required to report within 72 hours. Sanctions = May include termination of the hospital's Medicare provider agreement. Civil monetary penalties = Up to $50,000 per violation. 375 / 1231 Match the following authorities with the corresponding actions required if a violation occurs within 72 hours: SLA site license authority = The violation must be reported. OCR office of civil rights = Corrective action may be required. OIG office inspector general = An investigation may be initiated. CMS = Termination of services may occur. Prompt reporting of violations to relevant authorities is crucial for maintaining compliance and patient safety. 376 / 1231 Under the Stark Law, it is permissible for a physician to refer patients to an entity for designated health services covered by Medicare if the physician or an immediate family member has a financial relationship with the entity, provided the relationship is disclosed in writing to the patient prior to the referral. True False The Stark Law prohibits physicians from referring patients to an entity for designated health services covered by Medicare if the physician or an immediate family member has a financial relationship with the entity, irrespective of disclosure. 377 / 1231 Within the ambit of ADA Title III, a private entity is at liberty to apply eligibility criteria that tend to screen out an individual with a disability if such criteria are premised upon the imperative of ensuring legitimate safety requirements for the extant operation. True False Under ADA Title III, a public accommodation must not impose or apply eligibility criteria that screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability unless such criteria are necessary for legitimate safety requirements. 378 / 1231 The HITECH Act stipulates that in the event of a data breach involving unsecured protected health information (PHI), affected individuals must be notified within 30 days of the breach's discovery. True False The HITECH Act mandates that in the event of a data breach involving unsecured protected health information (PHI), affected individuals must be notified within 60 days of the breach's discovery. 379 / 1231 Within the context of EMTALA, if upon presentation to the Emergency Department, an individual is deemed to require services beyond the capabilities of that facility, the hospital is obligated to provide stabilizing treatment, and an appropriate transfer; the accepting facility retains the latitude to refuse the transfer based *solely* on the patient's insurance status or ability to pay. True False EMTALA explicitly prohibits discrimination based on insurance status or ability to pay, making such refusals a violation of federal law unless other factors such as capacity issues are the reason. 380 / 1231 In the event that a resident is filing a formal complaint regarding an infraction of resident rights it is acceptable for the long term care facility to levy penalties against them. True False Long term care facilities must emphasize residents' rights and promote their dignity. Residents may file formal complaints about infringement of any right without fear of penalty. 381 / 1231 The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) allows a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening if a physician is immediately available True False The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) permits a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening if the RN is designated by the medical staff as qualified and is working under an approved standardized procedure when a physician is *not* available to perform the screening examination. 382 / 1231 According to updated EMTALA regulations, a hospital is obligated to screen and stabilize a patient who develops a medical emergency during an outpatient physical therapy visit. True False A patient who develops chest pain during an outpatient physical therapy visit does not cause the hospital to have an EMTALA obligation to screen and stabilize the patient. 383 / 1231 According to EMTALA’s Nondiscrimination Provision, a local regional referral center with available beds may refuse to accept a patient transfer due to the patient's resident status if they refuse the transfer. True False A regional referral center cannot refuse transfer if it has available beds under the EMTALA Nondiscrimination Provision. Residents of a program are not allowed to refuse transfer during a potential health emergency. 384 / 1231 Under EMTALA guidelines, the decision to have an on-call specialist physician come to the ED to assess a patient can be made by the on-call specialist physician. True False The decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient, is not made by the physician, it is made by the emergency department physician. 385 / 1231 Under EMTALA, a hospital is required to report suspected improper transfers, such as financial 'dumps', within 24 hours. True False Hospitals are required to report suspected improper transfers within 72 hours, not 24 hours, under EMTALA guidelines. This ensures timely investigation and response to potential violations. 386 / 1231 A central log must be kept of all patients seeking emergent care in the hospital. True False A central log must be kept of all patients. 387 / 1231 A 50-year-old man was receiving antibiotic therapy as a hospital patient, but required a transfer when his condition worsen quickly. The hospital personnel did their best effort to transfer but unfortunately unsuccessful, This is not a EMTALA violation. True False In A 50-year-old man was receiving antibiotic therapy as an inpatient at the Milo Regional Medical Center is not a EMTALA violation effort to transfer. 388 / 1231 A 90-year-old patient expresses that they are concerned about his children stealing his finance while at risk for a medical procedure, and now all communications done in front of them. True False Cannot discuses patient information in front the patient's finds except with patient accept. 389 / 1231 If known medical malpractice has occurred, you cannot just have the doctor just sign a form that indicates that medical malpractice occurred for the case and this may cause a per se liability of the professional license. True False If medical malpractice has occurred, you cannot just have the doctor only sign or indicate that medical malpractice occurred for the case and this may cause a per se liability of the professional license. 390 / 1231 A risk professional is made aware that a nurse released protected patient info, a proper HIPAA process should be followed by reporting to OCR office of civil right. True False There is a HIPAA and a proper HIPAA process should be followed and reported to OCR office of civil right. 391 / 1231 Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, employers can ask about the nature and severity of a disability during the initial job interview to determine reasonable accommodations. True False Under the ADA, employers are typically prohibited from asking about the nature or severity of a disability during the job interview. 392 / 1231 A central component of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is that all healthcare providers always must obtain patient authorization before disclosing PHI to external entities for reasons other than treatment, payment, or operations. True False Permitted disclosure can occur without authorization for law enforcement purposes, public health activities, or judicial proceedings when certain conditions are met. 393 / 1231 EMTALA permits a certified nursing assistant (CNA) to perform a medical screening examination when a physician is unavailable. True False The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) permits a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening. 394 / 1231 Under the Medicare program, a SNF (skilled nurse facility) emphasizes on residents' rights, safety and dignity, and that is unrelated to the Medicaid program. True False The Medicare & Medicaid programs in a SNF (stilled nurse facility) both emphasized residents' rights, safety and dignity, residents may file formal complaints about infraction of any right . 395 / 1231 Under the emergency exception to the informed consent rule, only the patient's power of attorney can provide the emergency treatment. True False The emergency exception to the informed consent rule allows physicians to assume an unconscious patient and proceed with emergency treatment. 396 / 1231 Under EMTALA regulations, an off-campus outpatient facility 2 miles from the main hospital __must__ provide a medical screening examination within its capabilities and transport to the hospital. True False An off-campus outpatient facility 1 mile away from a hospital __must__ provide a medical screening examination within its capabilities and transport to the hospital. 397 / 1231 In November 2003, federal EMTALA regulations were updated, specifying that all hospitals must have physicians on call 36 hours a day, 8 days a week. True False All hospitals must have physicians on call 24 hours a day, seven days a week since the EMTALA regulation updates in November 2003. 398 / 1231 Under the EMTALA Nondiscrimination Provision, a local regional referral center is obligated to accept the transfer of a patient, if they have the capacity. True False Under the EMTALA Nondiscrimination Provision the local regional referral center is obligated to take this patient. 399 / 1231 Under EMTALA guidelines, the on-call specialist physician has the authority to decide whether they will come to the ED to assess a patient if requested by the ED physician. True False Under EMTALA CMS guidelines, the emergency department physician makes the ultimate decision, despite input or refusal from specialists. 400 / 1231 An on-site examination by the on-call cardiologist, requested due to an equivocal ECG, is considered a stabilizing treatment under EMTALA guidelines. True False An examination by the on-call specialist physician is part of the medical screening examination, not a stabilizing treatment. 401 / 1231 Under EMTALA, a hospital that cannot provide complete on-call coverage for a particular service may be fined up to $75,000 without further obligations. True False A hospital that cannot provide complete on-call coverage must make efforts to arrange for such coverage to the best of its ability. 402 / 1231 A central log of everyone seeking emergent care in the Emergency Department must be maintained by the security department. True False The central log of everyone coming to the Emergency Department for emergent care must to be maintained by departments that offer non-scheduled primary care services. 403 / 1231 EMTALA requires Medicare/Medicaid hospitals with emergency services to always avoid billing patients, regardless of insurance status. False True While avoiding billing uninsured patients is a consideration, EMTALA primarily focuses on ensuring a medical screening examination and stabilization of emergency medical conditions, not the act of billing patients. 404 / 1231 Hospitals are only *encouraged* to report suspected improper patient transfers. True False Hospitals are *required* to report suspected improper transfers, not merely encouraged. 405 / 1231 Reporting a SLA site license authority violation within 72 hours is mandatory. True False Failure to report a SLA site license authority violation within 72 hours constitutes a violation. 406 / 1231 How should a risk manager respond to a data breach of patient information that impacts over 500 individuals locally? Notify only those in the medical setting as they had a right to this data. Do nothing as they have a right to access this information It doesn't matter since people will recover anyway; do nothing. If the breach is believed to affect more than 500 residents of a state or jurisdiction, notice must be provided to prominent media within that area, and posting on an HHS web site. If the breach is believed to affect more than 500 residents of a state or jurisdiction, notice must be provided to prominent media within that area, and posting on an HHS web site. 407 / 1231 Which attribute would automatically categorize facility information as Protected Health Information under HIPAA regulations, thereby mandating stringent security and access control measures? The storage of aggregate patient satisfaction scores collected through anonymous surveys. The utilization of a Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System code on a physician order. The inclusion of non-identifying statistical data used for internal benchmarking. Any information about health status, provision of health care, or payment for health care that can be linked to a specific individual. In HIPAA terms, data is considered PHI if any information about health status, provision of health care, or payment for health care that can be linked to a specific individual. 408 / 1231 In contemplating potential litigation against the healthcare organization, what proactive maneuver should the astute risk manager undertake to safeguard the organization's interests? Implement a moratorium on all policy revisions to preclude any suggestion of culpability. Disseminate a preemptive public relations campaign to mitigate potential reputational damage. Activate legal privilege and begin to prepare for a possible defense. Consummate an immediate and comprehensive deletion of all internal communications referencing the implicated incident. Facing lititation, a risk manager should activate legal privilege and begin to prepare for a possible defense. 409 / 1231 A seasoned risk professional, upon discerning a potential documentation error within a patient's comprehensive medical record, should execute which of the following imperative actions? Propose to the practitioner responsible; to amend with proper procedure. Immediately expunge the erroneous entry from the record to avert possible legal ramifications. Communicate directly with the patient, seeking their informed consent to rectify the error. Execute an immediate facility-wide audit to ascertain the prevalence of similar errors. The risk professional should propose to the practitioner responsible to amend potential documention errors with proper procedure. 410 / 1231 Within the architecture of a healthcare organization, upon receiving a subpoena for a patient's medical records, what precise course of action should the risk manager immediately prescribe to the involved staff? To transmit the entirety of the patient's medical record to the court, ensuring expeditious legal proceedings. To promptly notify the patient and meticulously document the notification attempt while awaiting further directives. To scrutinize the subpoena for legal legitimacy, and subsequently redact any information perceived as sensitive or irrelevant. To contact defense counsel for guidance. The staff should contact defense counsel for guidance upon receiving a subpoena for a patient's medical records. 411 / 1231 Which criterion definitively distinguishes information as Individually Identifiable Health Information (IIHI) under the rigorous stipulations of the HIPAA Privacy Rule? The presence of a full name and residential address within the patient's billing statement. The classification of the information as sensitive in nature according to institutional policy. The presence of handwritten physician notes within a patient's electronic medical record. The potential for an individual to be recognized based on the information. Information is IHI if there is a potential for an individual to be recognized based on the information alone. 412 / 1231 Under the labyrinthine framework of HIPAA regulations, which specific disclosure is permissible without obtaining explicit individual authorization, and without affording the individual an opportunity to either agree or object? Disclosure to marketing firms for targeted advertising of healthcare products and services. Disclosure to law enforcement officials when mandated by a validly issued subpoena. Disclosure to a prospective employer seeking to verify an applicant's health history. Disclosure to immediate family members who express concern for the individual's well-being. Under HIPAA, disclosure is permitted without an individuals authorization and without an opportunity to agree/object with a validly issued subpoena. 413 / 1231 Within the framework of Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, what specific element must be integrated into a facility safety program to ensure comprehensive compliance? Establishment of an employee-led committee responsible for organizing monthly social events. Provision of ergonomic assessments for employees who have already reported musculoskeletal injuries. Implementation of a hazard communication program that elucidates the risks associated with chemical exposure. Mandatory participation in a quarterly wellness challenge designed to improve employee morale. A compliant facility safety program must include a hazard communication program that elucidates the risks associated with chemical exposure. 414 / 1231 According to Medicare's regulations for Long-Term Care (LTC) facilities, what are LTC laws primarily focused on with regard to patient care? Implementing stringent penalties for facilities that fail to meet quarterly benchmarks for patient satisfaction. Primarily focusing on cost-containment measures to optimize resource allocation within long-term care settings. Advocating for initiatives that support sustained advancement in the overall standard of patient well-being. Ensuring that all LTC facilities adhere to a uniform national protocol for patient care. LTC laws aim to improve and maintain overall quality of patient care in long-term care (LTC) facilities, initiatives should continually improve. 415 / 1231 Under what highly specific condition does the emergency exception to the informed consent rule permit physicians to presume consent from an unconscious patient with no available information? When two physicians independently document the situation as an emergency that threatens imminent loss of life or limb. When the treating physician meticulously documents the emergent nature of the situation and the immediate necessity of the procedure. When the patient has a documented advance directive stipulating blanket consent for any and all emergency procedures. When the patient has no prior documented history of refusing the specific procedure in question. The physician must document the emergency and the need to provide emergency care in order to assume consent from a patient. 416 / 1231 When facing potential litigation against the organization. what action could a risk manager take? Withhold medical records Ensure the security of the medical records Make the clinical staff edit and make appropriate changes Make sure that the patient attorney has the records A healthcare risk professional facing potential litigation should assure the patient's medical records remain secure. 417 / 1231 What action should a risk manager do upon learning of a potential documentation error? Throw out the records Suggest the provider make changes to better reflect care Ask the care provider to be silent Add addendums regarding the situation, but not change the original record At no point should records be altered, rather addendums should be added. 418 / 1231 What action should a risk manager recommend to staff upon receipt of a subpoena for a patient's medical records? Changing the dates to be more favorable to the organization Notifying the patient regarding the subpoena for an opportunity to object Provide records described as quickly as possible Nothing, a subpoena requires no action if you feel it violates patient privacy After receiving a letter stating notification, they risk manager should state the importance of notifying the patient regarding the supoena for an opportunity to object. 419 / 1231 Which of the following is NOT considered individually identifiable health information? Employment records that the covered entity maintains in its capacity as an employer An individual's medical record An individual's past payment history at the hospital A patient's name According to HIPAA, Employment records that the covered entity maintains in its capacity as an employer is NOT considered individually identifiable health information. 420 / 1231 What does the Privacy Rule give patients the right to request? Having a copy of health records regarding their spouse Having corrections added to their health information To know the hospitals standards of quality of care Having a copy of health records regarding their children The Privacy Rule gives patients the right to request corrections to be added to their health information. 421 / 1231 Which of the following federal agencies has the authority to enforce the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule? Office of Inspector General Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) US Department of Justice Office for Civil Rights The Office for Civil Rights (OCR) has the authority to enforce HIPAA violations. 422 / 1231 A risk professional needs to design a facility safety program that complies with the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA). Which of the following elements must be included in the Program? Implementing rules where employees are not allowed to speak up Requiring healthcare providers to work 18 hours a day Implementing a process to hide data pertaining to OSHA Creating workplace safety rules The key purpose of OSHA is to create workplace safety rules. 423 / 1231 According to the Medicare regulations for Long-Term care, in order to improve and maintain overall quality of patient care in long-term care (LTC) facilities, initiatives should include: A focus on providing a formal training program for only doctors and nurses A special focus on restraint reduction A focus on providing assistance for all patients in hospice care A focus to provide medical treatment for all patients who come to the LTC facility Initiatives to continually improve and maintain the overall level of patient care in long-term care (LTC) facilities should include a special focus on restraint reduction. 424 / 1231 In the event of an unconscious patient with no available information, under what conditions can physicians assume consent for a procedure, according to the emergency exception to the informed consent rule? If two physicians document the situation as an emergency If the patient has an advance directive on file If the patient has not previously refused the procedure If the physician documents the emergency and the need for immediate care in the patient's chart The emergency exception to the informed consent rule allows physicians to assume that an unconscious patient, about whom there is no information, would have given consent to a procedure in an emergency situation when the physician documents the emergency and the need to provide emergency care. 425 / 1231 An organization's commitment to following recommended practices and guidelines as it relates to business and ethical practices falls under what program? False Claims Act Corporate Compliance Program Recovery Audit Program Reinvestment Act A corporate compliance program is a program that demonstrates commitment to ethical and honest behavior in the workplace. 426 / 1231 The Privacy Rule gives the patients all but which one of the following Ask to see and get a copy of her health records Ask to see a get a copy of health record of her spouse. Receive notice that tells her how her health information may be used and shared Have corrections added to her health information Patients have rights to A, B and C not d. 427 / 1231 What is NOT Individually Identifiable Information? Employments records that the covered entity maintains in its capacity as an employer. The provision of health care to the individual The individual's past, present or future physical or mental health or condition The past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to the individual Employments records that the covered entity maintains in its capacity as an employer are not identified as Indivdiually identified information. 428 / 1231 Which of the following documents explains a healthcare organization's rules for releasing a patient's medical information? authorization for release of information electronic medical record notice of privacy practice general consent form The notice of privacy practice is what explains the rules set to manage healthcare information. 429 / 1231 The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA): Prohibits the flow of individually identified health information for unauthorized purposes and provides for legal recourse against individuals who misuse or mishandle health information. Allows individuals to know who is accessing their information Allows individuals the opportunity to obtain corrections to inaccurate or incorrect information All of the above The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) focuses on; Prohibits the flow of individually identified health information for unauthorized purposes; Allows individuals to know who is accessing their information; Allows individuals the opportunity to obtain corrections to inaccurate or incorrect information; Provides for legal recourse against individuals who misuse or mishandle health information. 430 / 1231 What processes can a healthcare facility use to disclose patient health information without the patient's authorization based on the HIPAA Privacy Rule? treatment, payment, and healthcare operations insurance claim, subpoena, and referral payment, coding, and marketing family's request, mortality review, and peer review You’re covered to make a claim, or a subpoena, or a referral, but there shouldn’t be any family requests, you need documentation always, and peer reviewing is always okay. Treatments, payment, and healthcare operations are essential. 431 / 1231 According to HIPAA, which of the following disclosures are permitted without an individual's authorization and without granting the individual an opportunity to agree or object to the disclosure? I and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only I, 3 and 4 only All of the above A physician disclosing an individual's medical record to colleague (1), a hospital disclosing health information to the company providing its billing services and a patient health information to an accreditation organization for the purpose of obtaining accreditation are all examples of when authorization isn't required. Not for directory information. 432 / 1231 Accidental destruction of a provider's medical record of a patient after that patient has brought suit against that provider is called medical record compromise violation of evidence. wanton disregard. spoliation of evidence. Accidental destruction of a provider's medical record of a patient after that patient has brought suit against that provider is called spoliation of evidence. 433 / 1231 It is important to protect the discoverability of incident reports. Which of the following have significant impact on whether the reports are discoverable? 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only All of the above Important factors may be 2,3, and 4. 434 / 1231 A risk professional is notified that a patient with a dog has just been admitted to a medical unit.To ensure compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), the hospital risk professional should ask the patient: if the dog is a comfort or emotional support animal and if there is documentation as such. to provide certification or documentation the dog is a service animal and clarify responsibility for the dog. if the dog is required because of a disability and what task or service has the animal been trained to perform. to keep the dog leashed at all times while on hospital premises and provide a document that shots up to date. The risk professional, for compliance, should ask if the dog is required because of a disability and what task or service has the animal been trained to perform. 435 / 1231 The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits an employer from asking about the existence, nature, or severity of a disability when? until the employer has offered the position to the applicant. until employment has commenced. until the interview process has been completed. until a formal application for employment has been processed. The ADA prohibits an employer from asking about the existence, nature, or severity of a disability until offering the position to the candidate. 436 / 1231 An employer declined to hire a qualified applicant otherwise, why? If the applicant refuses to describe or explain her disability If the applicant might present a safety risk to herself or her co-workers If the applicant cannot explain or demonstrate how she would actually perform her job when asked to do so All of the above These are all good answers, however according to ADA requirements if the applicant cannot explain or demonstrate how she would actually perform her job when asked to do so, then that would be accurate. 437 / 1231 A risk professional learns of an incident where medical staff discussed a patient's information in front of the patient's family. This action is not covered under HIPAA except: It will benefit the facility. It will improve patient care. Patient accepts It was time sensitive. You can only converse in front of the patients family if they accept. 438 / 1231 According to HIPAA guidelines, what conditions are required for the exception of PHI to be shared for treatment? Abuse is suspected. Payment is being made. FDA, Abuse or Criminality FDA issues are present. The conditions of the exception are; treatment such as consultation, payment such as insurer, and operation such as quality and risk management activity and FDA; Abuse; Criminal. 439 / 1231 According to EMTALA, what type of information access regarding patients' medical information is permissible? Gender Location Medical decision Date of Birth You can access medical decisions of patients. 440 / 1231 What is the primary focus of the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA)? Providing financial incentives for hospitals to reduce readmission rates Implementing electronic health record systems nationwide Standardizing medical billing and coding practices Creating a confidential system for reporting and analyzing patient safety events The main focus of the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA) is to create a confidential system for reporting and analyzing patient safety events 441 / 1231 The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act established regulations regarding what aspects of clinical lab practices? Price controls for laboratory tests Patient access to laboratory results Quality standards for clinical laboratories Mandatory insurance coverage for lab services The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) focused on quality standards for clinical laboratories. 442 / 1231 To enhance the quality of a medical record, the risk manager should be vigilant in assessing the quality of medical record documentation.What should they do? Participate in general orientation for the new employees and Collaborate with Medical Records Department personnel. Collaborate with Medical Records Department personnel. Review incident patterns and trends for documentation issues and problems throughout the organization and review and Contact defense counsel whenever there is a violation of a documentation guideline or standard of practice. Participate in general orientation for the new employees and Collaborate with Medical Records Department personnel and Review incident patterns and trends for documentation issues and problems throughout the organization. The risk manager should Review incident patterns and tends for documentation issues and problems throughout the organization and they should also contact defense counsel whenever there is a violation of a documentation guideline or standard of practice. 443 / 1231 During an interview, what would be appropriate for a supervisor to ask a candidate? Marriage Prescribed medications Meeting organization requirements Citizenship During the interview, there are certain questions that can’t be asked some of these are around citizenship, but meeting requirements is one that can be asked about. 444 / 1231 Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, what question is appropriate to ask a person if a dog is brought to the facility and is said to be a service animal? Ask if the dog is a comfort or emotional support animal and if there is documentation as such. Ask the reason the dog is needed in the facility. Ask for proof that the dog is required because of a disability and what task or service the animal has been trained to perform. Ask the reason the dog is at the scene. Ask for proof that the dog is required because of a disability and what task or service the animal has been trained to perform. 445 / 1231 Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, when is an employer typically permitted to ask about the nature or severity of a disability? After the interview process has been completed After the employer has offered the position to the applicant Once employment has commenced During the initial job application process Under the ADA the employer has to offer the position for asking about the nature or severity of a disability. 446 / 1231 Under Title III of the ADA, what is a public accommodation prohibited from doing? Charging higher prices for services to individuals with disabilities Asking about the nature of a person's disability during initial assessment Providing separate but equal services to individuals with disabilities Imposing eligibility criteria that screen out individuals with disabilities, unless such criteria are necessary for safe operation Title III prevents from imposing eligibility criteria that screen out individuals with disabilities but criteria are necessary for safe operation. 447 / 1231 The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits discrimination based on disability in which of the following areas? Public Accommodations and Commercial Facilities Educational Institutions and Government Buildings Transportation Services and Housing All of the above The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits discrimination based on disability in Public Accommodations and Commercial Facilities 448 / 1231 Which of the following is included in the types of abuse to report? Psychological-Physical-Emotional-Exploitation-Threats Emotional-Sexual-Physical-Neglect-Abduction-Abonnement Verbal-Emotional-Financial-Neglect-Isolation Financial-Physical-Spiritual-Neglect-Abandonment Types of abuse are Emotional-Sexual-Physical-Neglect-Abduction-Abonnement 449 / 1231 CAPTA is designed for what type of abuse reporting requirements? Child Abuse Elder Abuse Animal Abuse Domestic abuse CAPTA is used when talking about Child Abuse reporting requirements 450 / 1231 What survey frequency is generally conducted from CMS for resident care in long-term care facilities? Annually Every 24 months Every 3-6 months Every 9-15 months Surveys are conducted every 9-15 months from CMS 451 / 1231 Which of the following initiatives is most aligned with LTC requirements for improving patient care? Implementing mandatory overtime for nursing staff. Increasing the use of physical restraints for managing difficult behaviors. Reducing the frequency of physician follow-up visits. Developing initiatives to continually improve and maintain overall level of patient care (including a special focus on restraint reduction). One of the things that LTC focuses on is reduction 452 / 1231 According to Medicare regulations for Long-Term Care facilities, what are LTC laws primarily focused on? Ensuring residents' rights and promoting their dignity. Providing detailed protocols for infection control. Setting specific staffing ratios for nursing homes. Establishing requirements for facility construction and maintenance. AKA: LTC laws emphasizes patients rights and promoting the dignity of residents' 453 / 1231 In what situation, according to the general emergency exception to the informed consent rule, can physicians assume an unconscious patient would provide consent for a procedure? When the physician documents the emergency and the need to provide emergency care. When the patient has an advance directive on file. When the patient has not refused this procedure in the past. When two physicians have documented it is an emergency. Physicians can assume an unconscious patient would consent when the physician documents the emergency and the need to provide emergency care 454 / 1231 A 50-year-old man receiving antibiotic therapy as an inpatient requires transfer due to a dramatically changed condition, developing a subdural hematoma requiring immediate neurosurgical intervention not available at the current facility. Despite extensive efforts to find a facility with neurosurgery capabilities, his transfer is delayed. Which of the following are EMTALA violations? Milo's attempt to transfer the patient. Milo's failure to stabilize the patient's emergency medical condition. Peach's refusal to accept the patient despite having specialized capabilities and capacity. More than one of the above. None of the above 455 / 1231 Which of the following EMTALA obligations applies to an off-campus outpatient facility located one mile away from a main hospital? Implementing a policy for handling emergency medical conditions approved by the medical staff Posting signage that states the facility does not provide emergency treatment Providing a medical screening examination within its capabilities and transport to the hospital Adhering to the 250-yard rule An off-campus outpatient facility must implement a policy for handling emergency medical conditions in the event one occurs. 456 / 1231 Changes to the federal EMTALA regulations that became effective in November 2003 include: The EMTALA regulations no longer apply to inpatients and the definition of hospital property was narrowed. All hospitals must have physicians on call 24 hours a day, seven days a week, physicians are not allowed to schedule elective procedures when they are on call for emergencies and the definition of hospital property was narrowed. All hospitals must have physicians on call 24 hours a day, seven days a week and physicians are not allowed to schedule elective procedures when they are on call for emergencies Physicians are not allowed to schedule elective procedures when they are on call for emergencies and the definition of hospital property was narrowed. Changes to the federal EMTALA regulations that became effective in November 2003 dictates the definition of hospital property was narrowed, and the EMTALA regulations no longer apply to inpatients. 457 / 1231 After providing a medical screening exam, the Emergency Department physician calls the orthopedic surgeon on call. After a brief discussion, the ED physician requests that the surgeon come to the hospital to examine the patient and provide care. The surgeon refuses. Per CMS EMTALA guidelines, which of the following individuals should make the decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient? The on-call specialist physician Chief Executive Officer The emergency department physician Chief Medical Officer The emergency department physician must make the decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient. 458 / 1231 A patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of scrotal pain and a swollen testicle. The ultrasound examination is equivocal, and the emergency physician believes an on-site examination by the on-call urologist is necessary. The urologist's examination would be considered what under EMTALA? Part of the Medical Screening Examination Stabilizing Treatment Both of these answers Neither of these answers The examination by the urologist would be considered Part of the Medical Screening Examination 459 / 1231 If a hospital cannot provide complete on-call coverage for a particular service represented by its medical staff, what action does EMTALA require? The hospital will lose its Medicare certification. The hospital must make efforts to arrange for such coverage to the best of its ability. The hospital may be fined up to $50,000. The hospital must post information to this effect in each public area. Under EMTALA, If the hospital cannot provide complete on-call coverage for a particular service represented by the medical staff, the hospital must make efforts to arrange for such coverage to the best of its ability. 460 / 1231 An Emergency Department must maintain a central log of everyone seeking emergent care. Such logs must be maintained by departments that: Provide case management services to patients Counsel patients as to the availability of alternative healthcare services within the community. Offer non-scheduled primary care services None of the above Departments who offer non-scheduled primary care services must maintain a central log of everyone seeking emergent care. 461 / 1231 Under what circumstance does EMTALA allow a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening examination in the emergency services? When a physician is not available to perform the screening examination. When the screening examination is performed in the emergency department. When a physician is immediately available. As allowed by the state's nursing practice act. Per EMTALA, a registered nurse (RN) can perform a medical screening if the RN is designated by the medical staff as qualified and is working under an approved standardized procedure when allowed by the state's nursing practice act. 462 / 1231 A 36-week pregnant woman arrives at the emergency department with labor pains. She is sent directly to labor and delivery without registration or triage in the ED. Which statement accurately reflects EMTALA compliance in this situation? The emergency department must at least put the patient in the EMTALA log. This is acceptable as long as it is consistent with hospital policy; and the labor and delivery nurses doing screening exams are aware the labor and delivery nurses have orientation to the hospital medical screening examination policy. The emergency department must at least triage the patient. This is a violation of EMTALA. If the governing body is aware of the labor and delivery nurses doing screening exams; and those registered and trained in the hospital have access to the hospital medical screening examination policy then the action is acceptable. 463 / 1231 A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a fever and earache. After examination, the physician diagnoses otitis media, notes a supple neck, minimal temperature, and that the child is awake, happy and playful. The child is discharged with antibiotics. The next day, the child returns with meningitis and is severely brain-injured. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the hospital's EMTALA liability? This child could not have been stable for discharge. This is an EMTALA violation. This must be a per se violation of EMTALA. This was an adequate screening exam. There was no emergency medical condition; EMTALA does not apply. This is both medical negligence and a violation of EMTALA. This was an adequate screening exam, so EMTALA does not apply in this case. 464 / 1231 Who has the primary responsibility for determining the initial emergency response level at the scene of an incident? The emergency medical technicians responding to the scene The medical expert at the scene Dispatch personnel in accordance with policies and procedures approved by the medical director The emergency room physician scheduled to receive the patient The emergency medical technicians responding to the scene has the primary responsibility for determining the initial emergency response level 465 / 1231 A patient presents to a hospital's physical therapy department for an outpatient visit and develops chest pain during the session, requiring transfer to the emergency department. Under EMTALA regulations, is the hospital obligated to provide a medical screening examination and stabilization? True False EMTALA obligations typically apply to patients who present to the emergency department, not those already receiving scheduled outpatient services when an emergency arises. 466 / 1231 A 34-year-old male patient presents to a rural hospital with head trauma following a tractor accident. A CT scan reveals an epidural bleed, but the hospital lacks neurosurgical services. The emergency physician contacts a regional referral center with a neurosurgical unit, where beds are available. However, the resident on call refuses the transfer. What is true regarding this scenario? EMTALA does not apply to residents. The resident must allow an attending physician to make this decision. Under the EMTALA Nondiscrimination Provision, the local regional referral center is obligated to take this patient. EMTALA has no relevance in this situation. Under the EMTALA Nondiscrimination Provision the local regional referral center is obligated to take this patient, so the emergency department must contact the regional referral center. 467 / 1231 Following a medical screening exam in the Emergency Department, an on-call orthopedic surgeon refuses to come to the hospital to examine the patient despite a request from the ED physician. According to CMS EMTALA guidelines, who is responsible for making the decision whether the on-call specialist must come to the ED to assess the patient? The on-call specialist physician The Chief Medical Officer The emergency department physician The Chief Executive Officer According to EMTALA guidelines, the emergency department physician must make the decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient. 468 / 1231 What action does the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) _require_ a hospital with emergency services to take first? Secure pre-authorization for services. Conduct a medical screening. Obtain insurance information. Contact the patient's primary care physician. EMTALA mandates a medical screening examination to determine if an emergency medical condition exists. 469 / 1231 What is the maximum civil monetary penalty for violating EMTALA regulations? $50,000 per violation $10,000 per violation $100,000 per violation $25,000 per violation Civil monetary penalties for EMTALA violations can reach up to $50,000 per instance. 470 / 1231 Under EMTALA, what specific action are hospitals _required_ to perform regarding suspected improper patient transfers? Report suspected improper transfers within 72 hours. Provide transportation for the patient to their home. Offer legal counsel to the transferred patient. Negotiate transfer fees with the referring hospital. Hospitals must report suspected improper transfers to comply with EMTALA. 471 / 1231 If a hospital violates the SLA site license authority and does not report it within 72 hours, what is likely to occur? The hospital will receive a warning. A monetary fine of $10,000 will be enforced. The hospital will immediately lose accreditation. The act will be considered a violation. Failure to report within the given timeframe is a violation of standards 472 / 1231 Associate the following topics with if they apply or do not apply to EMTALA: Dedicated Emergency Department = Applies Physician office = Does not apply Hospitals = Applies War = Does not apply EMTALA aims to ensure that all patients have access to a medical screening examination and necessary stabilizing treatment irrespective of their financial status or health insurance. 473 / 1231 Connect these key terms regarding the Safety Medical Device Act with their definitions: Device = Any item used for the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of a disease. Reporting = Submitting information about device-related incidents to the FDA. Voluntary reporters = Healthcare practitioners. Serious injury = Can face possible litigations if failure to act when they have a suspicion of child abuse. The SMDA ensures patient safety and promotes the early detection and proper handling of medical device-related safety issues. 474 / 1231 Relate the following organizations to their role: FDA = Regulates safety and effectiveness of drugs and medical devices. DHHS = Oversees health and human services, including patient safety and research. OHRP = Provides leadership regarding protection of research participants. CMS = Administers Medicare and Medicaid, setting standards for healthcare facilities. The work of these agencies is vital to the infrastructure of healthcare, research, and patient safety. 475 / 1231 Match each type of consent with its description: Informed Consent = Agreement to a procedure based on full disclosure of risks, benefits, and alternatives. Implied Consent = Consent assumed during emergency situations when the patient is unable to express their wishes. General Consent = Broad agreement to routine medical treatment upon admission to a healthcare facility. Negligent Consent = Consent given without fully disclosing essential information about a procedure. A thorough understanding of the various types of consent is crucial for healthcare providers to ensure they're acting in accordance with legal and ethical guidelines. 476 / 1231 Match the following ethical principles with their corresponding descriptions: Autonomy = Ability to make decisions without undue influence; consent refusal. Beneficence = To do good and protect from harm; risk-benefit analysis. Non-maleficence = To avoid causing harm or prohibition against cruel treatment. Justice = Fairness and equal distribution of healthcare; non-discriminatory care. Adhering to these principles ensures that healthcare providers are prioritizing the well-being and rights of their patients. 477 / 1231 Match the following items related to Ethical Principles: Living will = Legal document that helps patients share how they would be treated if found terminally ill. Data Management = Ensuring patient information is kept safe and secure. Payment = Ethical, legal process to ensure payment is easy. Employment = Practitioner and company guidelines and laws to ensure a safe workplace. These ethical principles should be in line with all entities to encourage safe, respectful ethical consideration. 478 / 1231 Match each entity with the primary role: Autonomy = Mental or cognitive ability to make their own health decisions Voluntary = Joint Commission/ JCAHO, NCQA, etc. Mandatory = Federal and State laws. Voluntary reporting laws = Ethically Valid Process of Informed Consent Understanding different organizations helps with decision making. 479 / 1231 Match each entity with its role according to the The Patient Self-Determination Act Hospitals = To provide their clients with information regarding advance directives Physician's offices = Provide their clients with information regarding advance directives. Health maintenance organizations = To provide their clients with information regarding advance directives. Home healthcare services = To provide their clients with information regarding advance directives. Understanding each entities role helps in providing patients with advance directives in the heath care setting. 480 / 1231 Match the following terms related to surrogates of patients with the correct information: Civil Law = Judicial interpretation of a statute of established court precedent Common Law = Next of Kin. Durable power of attorney = For health care. State-specific = Ethically valid process of informed consent. These are the guidelines for what is ethically appropiate in the health care setting. 481 / 1231 Match the ethical issue with the appropriate category: Advance Directives = Decisions known. Do-not-resuscitate orders = What level of care. Institutional review boards = Research: benefits, risk ,faire. Informed consent = Disclosure. Understanding ethical issues before they are at play assist with providing ethical health care. 482 / 1231 Match the following statutes related to patient's rights with the correct detail: Patient Self-Determination Act = Requires healthcare facilities to inform patients of their rights to make decisions about their medical care. Advance Directives = Enables individuals to communicate their healthcare wishes in advance. Do-Not-Resuscitate Orders = Specifies a patient's wish not to receive CPR in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest. Understanding the details of these statutes help to ensure you are compliant with federal laws and regulations. 483 / 1231 Match the following types of Advance Directives correctly: Living Will = Legal document that describes the medical treatments a person would, or would not, want if they are unable to communicate their wishes. Durable Power of Attorney = Legal document that designates someone else to make medical decisions on a person's behalf when they are unable to do so. Advance directives help ensure a patient's wishes are honored when they are unable to communicate them. 484 / 1231 Match the following scenarios with the appropriate moral obligation: Patient's Diagnosis = Communicate honestly about all aspects of the patient’s diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis. Patient Refusal = Determine whether patient is capable of sharing in decision making( capacity, surrogate). Patient Privacy = Respect patient's privacy and protect confidentiality. Patient Treatment = Conduct an ethically valid process of informed consent. These moral obligations ensure patient rights are upheld throughout their care. 485 / 1231 Match the ethical principle with its description: Autonomy = Ability to make decisions without undue influence, consent refusal. Beneficence = To do good and protect from harm, risk benefit analysis. Non-maleficence = To avoid causing harm or prohibition against cruel treatment. Justice = Fairness and equal distribution of healthcare, non-discriminatory care. These four ethical principles are the foundation for ethical decision making for medical practitioners. 486 / 1231 Match the correct type of law with the correct description: Statutory Law = Enacted by Congress and approved by the president. Administrative Law = Regulations and rules developed and implemented by a federal or state agency. Case Law = Judicial interpretation of a statute or established court precedent. Understanding the different sources of law is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure compliance and ethical practice. 487 / 1231 Ethical rationalism posits that a health-care provider, when faced with a patient lacking cognitive capacity, should exclusively prioritize the directives established in the patient's advance directive, irrespective of the provider’s personal moral beliefs. True False While respecting advance directives is crucial, providers are also bound by their ethical and moral responsibilities, requiring a balanced consideration rather than absolute adherence irrespective of personal moral beliefs. 488 / 1231 The Safe Medical Device Act of 1990 necessitates that ambulatory surgical centers exclusively report adverse incidents involving permanently implantable devices directly to the FDA, thereby circumventing initial notification to the manufacturer, to expedite regulatory review. True False The SMDA of 1990 delineates that ambulatory surgical centers must primarily report device-related events to the product manufacturer and then to the FDA to ensure proper tracking and management of device failures. 489 / 1231 Informed consent mandates that physicians must disclose all potential risks and benefits to a patient before treatment except in scenarios involving family-focused consent processes which prioritize familial consent over full disclosure. True False While family-focused consent processes exist, they do not negate the requirement for full disclosure of risks and benefits, ensuring both the family and the patient are well-informed to make sound decisions. 490 / 1231 Under the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA), a hospital is mandated to provide a medical screening examination (MSE) and stabilizing treatment within its capacity and capability once a potential emergency medical condition is reasonably believed to be present, regardless of the individual's capacity to afford medical care. True False EMTALA stipulates that Medicare-participating hospitals must provide a medical screening examination (MSE) and stabilizing treatment within its capacity and capability, irrespective of the individual's ability to pay. 491 / 1231 Within the framework of the Health Care Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA), a hospital is obligated to grant a physician facing professional review proceedings no less than 90 days to furnish an informed synopsis of testimony at a subsequent impartial audition. True False HCQIA stipulates that a physician be granted at least 30 days to furnish an informed summary of the testimony before an impartial hearing, not 90 days. 492 / 1231 Under EMTALA, patients in the ER can only proceed to a MSE, or medical screening exam, after an insurance preauthorization has been completed. True False EMTALA mandates that all patients presenting to the ER must receive a MSE irrespective of their capacity to pay or insurance status; a QMP (qualified medical professional) can evaluate the patient for the MSE. 493 / 1231 The emergency exception bypasses the need for consent, but it still requires physicians to document the urgency and necessity of the care provided to the patient. True False Even in emergencies where consent is not immediately obtainable, physicians must thoroughly document the situation and the rationale for the interventions to support accountability and informed medical practice. 494 / 1231 Once initiated, advance directives are unchangeable and cannot be modified under any circumstances. True False Advance directives are not set in stone; a patient retains the right to change their mind at any point, underscoring the importance of ongoing communication and respect for patient autonomy. 495 / 1231 A health care provider is obligated to deliver treatments that violate their own ethical or religious beliefs. True False Health care staff may decline to provide care if it violates their conscience, but abandoning the patient is unacceptable. It is imperative the physician arranges a transfer in this situation. 496 / 1231 Health care settings such as hospitals, rural health facilities, and nursing facilities fall under the scope of rules that apply to twenty different health care categories. True False The rules pertaining to Medicare and Medicaid certification apply to a wide array of health care settings, including hospitals, rural health facilities, and nursing homes. 497 / 1231 A durable power of attorney for healthcare can not be authorized to any healthcare provider. True False A durable power of attorney must be a competent adult, or be emancipated. 498 / 1231 Withholding and Withdrawing treatments such as ventilation are examples of ethics. True False These issues can help to create an ethical debate. 499 / 1231 A patient is able to change their mind about an advanced directive up until the very last minute True False A patient can change their mind about an advanced directive at any time. 500 / 1231 Under the Patient Self Determination Act you simply need to comply with federal law regarding patient rights True False Under the Patient Self Determination Act, you must comply with state law regarding patient rights. 501 / 1231 An ethics consultation requires a formal request and justification before a consult can be performed. True False An ethics consult can be requested without justification. 502 / 1231 An ethics committee's decisions are legally binding on a healthcare organization. True False Ethics committees are consultive bodies and do not wield any power that can override the operational decision making of the company in question. 503 / 1231 A medical proxy needs to seek documented direction from the patient. True False A medical proxy should generally seek direction and or understand the wishes of the patient whenever possible. 504 / 1231 Healthcare practitioners are **voluntary** reporters of child abuse. True False Mandatory reporters are required to report suspected instances of child abuse or neglect. 505 / 1231 In most jurisdictions when a previously competent patient has a previously expressed wish to decline a treatment, it is acceptable to ignore the family's wishes, for medical care. True False A previously competent patient is a competent legal person, and their wishes must be respected. 506 / 1231 A healthcare power of attorney and a living will are exactly the same in all US states. True False The detail and scope of a healthcare power of attorney and living will, varies by state. 507 / 1231 The central principle for advance directives is **autonomy**. True False A patient's right to advance directives is based on the ethical principle of autonomy. 508 / 1231 A 'Do Not Resuscitate' (DNR) order always requires an advance directive as a precondition. True False A DNR order does not always require an advance directive as a precondition. 509 / 1231 A durable power of attorney can only be enacted once a patient has deceased. True False A durable power of attorney is enacted to cater for the healthcare wishes of the person during their lifetime. 510 / 1231 The Patient Self-Determination Act emphasizes patients' rights to consider treatment options, but does not touch on who carries it out. True False The Patient Self-Determination Act includes consideration of the options to carry out treatment. 511 / 1231 Beneficence, in healthcare ethics, relates to the ability to make decisions without undue influence. True False Autonomy, not beneficence, is the ability to make decisions without undue influence. Beneficence means to do good. 512 / 1231 In healthcare, ethics can be impacted by law, medicine, and biotechnology. True False Ethical issues in healthcare can arise from the collision of law, medicine, biotechnology, business, philosophy, religion and societal policy. 513 / 1231 Administrative Codes are enacted by congress and approved by the president. True False Statutory law, not Administrative Codes, is enacted by congress and approved by the president. 514 / 1231 Joint Commission accreditation is a mandatory requirement for all healthcare organizations. True False While Joint Commission accreditation is widely respected, it is a voluntary process for healthcare organizations. 515 / 1231 The assessment of data, as well as data Payment, are not key regulations and laws in healthcare. True False The key regulations and laws in healthcare include: patient care, data management, payment, employment and workplace safety. 516 / 1231 CPHQ certification is a qualification listed for Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi. True False Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi is listed as having CPHQ certification. 517 / 1231 A researcher is conducting a clinical trial with a novel gene therapy without guaranteeing to provide the potentially life-saving treatment once the trial has concluded. Under which ethical framework would this be evaluated within an IRB? Beneficence. Respect for persons. Justice. Non-maleficence. Justice speaks to the right for individuals to receive the applicable, life saving procedure. 518 / 1231 How do Conditions of Participation (CoPs) promulgated by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) most directly impact the provision of culturally and linguistically appropriate healthcare services within participating institutions? By incentivizing adoption of evidence based communication tools that standardize intercultural exchanges, thereby enhancing comprehension of patient narratives, symptom reporting, and compliance with physician recommendations. Mandating the implementation of standardized cultural competency training modules for all clinical and administrative staff, regardless of patient demographics. By requiring hospitals to contract with certified language interpreters for all patient encounters involving individuals with Limited English Proficiency (LEP). By establishing specific patient rights directly pertaining to the provision of care rendered in a manner congruent with their cultural values and preferred communication modalities. This is due to CoPs impact on patient rights. 519 / 1231 Which of the following scenarios presents an ethical challenge most primarily adjudicated through the lens of distributive justice within a healthcare system exhibiting finite resources and escalating demand? A physician opting to allocate a ventilator to a younger patient with a higher probability of survival, amidst a surge of critically ill patients during a pandemic. A hospital system prioritizing investment in advanced robotic surgical technology over expanding access to community-based preventative care initiatives. A pharmaceutical company setting a high price for a newly developed, life-saving drug, rendering it largely inaccessible to lower-income populations. An insurance company denying coverage for an experimental gene therapy that has demonstrated efficacy for a rare genetic disorder, citing concerns over cost-effectiveness. Prioritizing limited resources during a crisis. 520 / 1231 Under what highly specific circumstance would an action taken against a physician's privileges at a hospital NOT be reportable to the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB), assuming all other general reporting criteria are met? The action results from a formal disciplinary proceeding explicitly mandated by a state medical board. The matter is confidentially resolved through a binding arbitration process with conditions of strict non-disclosure for all parties involved. The action is based solely on administrative deficiencies. The action is voluntarily undertaken by the physician in exchange for the hospital's agreement not to initiate a formal investigation. Only actions based on competence or conduct are reportable, not those stemming solely from administrative issues. 521 / 1231 How does the Health Care Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA) most directly influence the internal operations of a healthcare organization's peer review processes regarding practitioner competence and professional conduct? By mandating standardized curricula for continuing medical education aimed at reinforcing ethical conduct and evidence-based decision-making. By creating a conditional legal immunity from damages for peer review bodies that adhere to defined fairness standards, incentivizing rigorous evaluation of professional performance. By requiring hospitals to adopt specific models for conflict resolution. By establishing a federal preemption over state laws pertaining to medical malpractice tort reform, aiming to ensure uniform standards of liability. HCQIA incentivizes internal improvements through conditional legal immunity. 522 / 1231 What precise set of conditions must simultaneously obtain for an emergency department, operating under the strictures of EMTALA, to transfer an unstable patient to another medical establishment without contravening the law? The transferring facility documents a lack of available beds or specialized equipment, alongside an attestation from a qualified medical professional (QMP) that further stabilization attempts would be medically futile. An on-call specialist at the accepting hospital pre-approves the transfer, after reviewing available patient data and confirming that the receiving facility possesses the resources absent at the transferring hospital. The transferring hospital lacks the capacity to provide appropriate treatment, the receiving facility confirms acceptance and the patient (or representative) provides informed consent after a documented assessment of associated risks and benefits. The transferring facility documents reasonable attempts to locate a more appropriate facility within a 100-mile radius, a QMP issues a certification explaining the emergent need for transfer, and transport is affected via an accredited EMS provider. Lack of capacity, acceptance by the receiving facility and informed consent are required for an EMTALA-compliant transfer. 523 / 1231 In the realm of Institutional Review Board (IRB) oversight of clinical trials, under what circumstance, is the implementation of a corrective action plan mandatorily escalated to federal regulatory bodies (e.g., OHRP, FDA) with the most urgent degree of immediacy? Documented deviations from the IRB-approved protocol relating to informed consent procedures, affecting <10% of study participants and subsequently rectified through prospective re-consenting. Substantiated allegations of data falsification perpetrated by study personnel, materially impacting statistical validity of efficacy endpoints with concurrent exposure of participants to elevated risk. Identification of unanticipated, but non-systemic, breaches of patient confidentiality affecting the privacy of study participants. Discovery of a previously unreported, moderate adverse event impacting <5% of study participants and deemed unrelated to the study intervention. Data falsification impacting efficacy endpoints with elevated risk warrants urgent escalation to federal regulatory bodies because it indicates systemic issues and potential compromise of participant safety. 524 / 1231 Under what nuanced condition, predicated upon an intricate interplay of ethical, legal, and institutional variables, may a healthcare provider ethically decline to execute a patient request, founded on firmly held cultural beliefs, for a treatment demonstrably proven to be medically efficacious? The Ethics Committee determines that given prevailing community standards, honoring the patient's treatment preference would establish an unacceptably detrimental precedent for resource allocation. In the setting where the treatment has the potential for negative externalities on the health of other patients. Demonstrable evidence exists indicating the requested treatment directly contravenes the provider's explicitly articulated, conscientiously held moral objections of patient safety. If the facility is accredited by a religious organization that formally prohibits this type of care as being unethical to their values. The option where there is demonstrable evidence indicating the requested treatment directly contravenes the provider's explicitly articulated, conscientiously held moral objections of patient safety. This presents a complex ethical situation. 525 / 1231 Within the framework of Medicare's Value-Based Purchasing (VBP) program, under what highly specific circumstance is a hospital's eligibility for incentive payments most significantly jeopardized, reflecting a multi-faceted failure encompassing clinical, administrative, and reporting shortcomings? Evidence of systematic underreporting of adverse events specifically related to surgical site infections, irrespective of compliance with all other VBP performance metrics. Demonstrated excellence in patient safety metrics but a statistically significant decline in publicly reported outcomes related to timely and effective care. Failure to meet minimum benchmarks across all Hospital-Acquired Conditions (HACs) measures coupled with incomplete or inaccurate reporting of patient satisfaction scores. Inconsistent adherence to externally validated protocols relating to culturally competent care, resulting in statistically relevant differences in clinical outcomes for those identifying as a minority group. Failure to meet minimum benchmarks across all Hospital-Acquired Conditions (HACs) measures coupled with incomplete or inaccurate reporting of patient satisfaction scores would indicate broad systemic issues. 526 / 1231 In scenarios where a medical device has potentially malfunctioned resulting in patient harm, under which circumstances is a healthcare facility required to report specifically to the FDA, rather than solely to the device manufacturer? When the device malfunction results in a serious injury requiring extensive surgical intervention but not death. When the adverse event is the first instance of such malfunction reported for that specific device model nationally. When hospital risk management deems the manufacturer unresponsive to prior communications regarding similar device concerns. When the manufacturer's contact information is definitively unknown and cannot be reasonably ascertained through due diligence. Facilities must report to the FDA if the manufacturer is unknown, underscoring the critical need for diligent attempts to identify the manufacturer first. 527 / 1231 Which description is least related to the main tasks of Institutional Review Boards (IRBs)? Managing budget. Research from A to Z Reporting Non conformance Patient consent. IRBs deal with protocols and not research funding. 528 / 1231 According to guidelines, on what is the patient's right to create advance directives founded? Regulations Beneficence Autonomy Justice The ethical cornerstone for the right to advance directives is autonomy, in which the patient is able to govern decisions without interference. 529 / 1231 What is a critical factor in determining the proper course of action with futile care? Family's financial capacity Physician consensus Patient's prior life quality Ethics, religious beliefs Medical providers have no obligation to deliver care violating their ethical or religious beliefs. 530 / 1231 What is the **most** crucial action when a medical device may have contributed to a patient's death? Maintain current location. Contact authorities. Follow SMDA guidelines and inform manufacturers. Label and secure device. Under the SMDA, information should be reported to the manufacturer, which ensures a proper investigation. 531 / 1231 In a healthcare setting, what constitutes an ethical concern stemming from biotechnology? Transferring genes to treat diseases. Determining appropriate staffing levels. Personal beliefs influencing patient care. Balancing the budget of a medical facility. Gene transfer brings up conversations about unforeseeable outcomes, and designer babies. 532 / 1231 Following surgery, Mr. Davis claimed negligence, and sought mediation that failed, so he then filed a state licensing complaint. What action by the patient would be reported to the NPDB? Engaging in mediation for medical malpractice. Filing a law suit. Lodging a complaint with state licensing board. Payment of $250,000 from judgement. A malpractice settlement of payment must be reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank concerning Dr. Davis 533 / 1231 What aspect of a hospital's operations is LEAST addressed by CMS's Conditions of Participation? The specific equipment models used in patient care. Quality assessment and performance improvement activities. Governing body operations. Physical environment standards. CMS Conditions of Participation are concerned with healthcare operations, not the makes and models of equipment. 534 / 1231 Which scenario involving a minor typically necessitates parental consent for treatment? When the child's parent has given written authority. When scheduling a relatively invasive procedure. When the relative is a grandparent without court orders. When at a pediatrician's office. The parents or legal guardians are responsible for making healthcare decisions for children; however, documentation showing an authorization to treat is needed. 535 / 1231 To comply with the Health Care Quality Improvement Act, which action is **most** important to take? Establishing written parameters protecting peer review activities. Reporting theft of narcotics to the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA). Follow the correct procedure to request information from NPDB. Regularly report physicians to appropriate entities. HCQIA emphasizes due process, making requesting information from NPDB a critical step. 536 / 1231 What action should a risk manager take **first** when a physician's actions are not aligned with policy? Informing the physician the family must remove life support. Working with the physician to resolve the situation. Meeting with the physician about brain death policy. Reporting the physician to the Chief of Service. The initial step should be to work with the physician to understand and resolve the situation collaboratively. 537 / 1231 Which is required for QMP to decide correct decision making in patient’s care? The patient must to sign a paper to allow to see the documentation. The doctor has the correctly documentation. Call the doctor. The doctor agree. QMP if there is no ability to take decision call the doctor to do it and this is a part of MSE screening. (MSE not Stabilization.) 538 / 1231 To what entity must a hospital and/or medical device manufacturer report an adverse event under the SMDA? Medical boards State Department of Public Health FDA DHSS If device has or may have caused or contributed to a death… report to product manufacturer 539 / 1231 What area or a question the device to be to all the personnel it can help the time and any safety question? Alert to quick notify to have the care to see this aspects.. Easy to find Good device A Tracking to remember device used. These are :Alerts Tracking mechanismand more , 540 / 1231 The goal of "Ad hock group" it have to be about deal with what medical aspects. Medical device after a report or review Check and get facts to give the better choice The correct action by the rules for the situation Action after an accident made by medical devices ad hock group who deal with (option ,alternative, ramification or removal ofdevice) 541 / 1231 What is the first key step should a medical provider perform in dealing with medical device safety? Segregation or sequestration with the device. Return and send it back Test if function Have it to be in record to be easy to known This are the action and follow by. -in dealing with devices is sequestering 542 / 1231 What are the reporting requirements for a serious injury under the Safe Medical Device Act (SMDA)? Report to product manufacture Report to the medical area Have reporting of the medical devices. Only the patient can make this reporting. If device has or may have caused or contributed to a serious injury... report to product manufacturer only. 543 / 1231 The FDA has main function for these areas bellow and what the products have to do A. Permanently implantable , report Track, recall show evidence of drug safety Life sustaining This is is what the products have to comply to be sure in The product 544 / 1231 What is the primary mission of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)? The main goal is to help people. To regulate prescription medication. To serve the population in many ways. To protect public health. This protect public health . 545 / 1231 The division of the Department of Health and Human Services that regulates prescription medication is: FTC CMS FDA OCR This is FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION .AKA. 546 / 1231 What law defines the conditions of Medicare and Medicaid? EMTALA SMDA HAQIA COP CoP,Cfc. 547 / 1231 In which scenario do the HIPAA laws no longer apply? HIPAA can report from other agency Has no change data data Bank service HIPAA: a clearinghouse for the reporting and disclosure of certain final “adverse actions” taken against health care practitioners, suppliers, and other providers in an effort to combat fraud and abuse HIPAA gives information related to the drug test The Health care improver and in the data Bank service so no change of the HIPAA. 548 / 1231 Failure to request information from the NPDB will result to the hospital Presumed to know about the information The hospital will be closed Pay penalty May cause the reputation and non compliance with the IRB. Hospitals that do not requestinformation from the NPDB are presumed to know about theinformation they would have obtained ifthey had askedFailure to report a reportable adverseaction waives the hospital’s immunityprotection from discovery for threeyears 549 / 1231 What is the name of the federal reporting initiative that contains information on healthcare practitioners? HIPAA FDA FBI NPDB This is HCQIA: NATIONAL PRACTITIONER DATA BANK (NPDB)Details: provides conditional immunityfrom anti-trust suits against healthcarefacilities and their medical staff thatparticipate in peer review, providedthat…. 550 / 1231 Which law mandates that medical malpractice payments must be collected and reported to help protect patients? FFCA SMDA HCQIA HIPAA These are Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 (HCQIA)and more . 551 / 1231 If a hospital is found to have far above average “HACs,” what action may that be taken by Medicare? Publicly shame the facility. Increase Medicare payments to fix care Medicare will no longer pay higher rates for HACs Close the facility. Reason for a “HAC": To improve medical care ,enforce federal regulation and no longer pay higher rates. 552 / 1231 What is the major goal of CMS's focus on “hospital-acquired conditions”HACs and its hospital “value based purchasing program”, VBP? To improve quality of treatment. To increase the overall volume medical process. To increase the reimbursement and benefits for hospitals. Save time for doctors to focus on other thing. Enacted due to and aimed at: High cost and high volume, Assignment of higher MS-DRG payment (increased reimbursement) and more . 553 / 1231 All of the following represent a CMS Condition of Participation, **except**: Surgical services Research Infection control Governing body COP include Infection control, surgical services, governing body, patient right and more. 554 / 1231 Select the appropriate role that provides operational elements via the Medicare CoP for nursing services. Mandated Reporting of adverse reactions Clinical Care Staffing and staff supervision Staff training All of the above 555 / 1231 Which of these is a focus area of Condition of Participation for hospitals? Medical record services Pharmaceutical services Radiological services All of the above COP focus areas are medical record services ,pharmaceutical services, radiological services,laboratory services,food and dietetic services,etc.. 556 / 1231 Which entities must adhere to the standards laid out in CMS Conditions of Participation? All healthcare providers Only for-profit hospitals Hospitals and providers seeking Medicare/Medicaid certification All U.S. hospitals Hospitals and providers seeking Medicare/Medicaid certification. 557 / 1231 According to 2023 CMS updates, what's a primary goal of Condition of Participation(CoP) standards? All patients had same treatment Is related to government rules and standards Guarantee the highest level of facilities profit. Guarantees high quality of care Is related to government rules and standards-CoP for hspitals 558 / 1231 All of the following are key requirements for EMTALA, **except**: Stabilization QMP or physician consultation for any patient presenting to the emergency department. Check for patient capacity. A central log of patients The correct process is: 559 / 1231 Under EMTALA, stabilizing an individual with an emergency medical condition requires providing treatment within: A reasonable amount of time given resources. Two hours. Hospital capacity and capability. 5 business days Medical examination and treatment within its capacity and capability to stabilize the medical condition. 560 / 1231 Which statement is most correct when considering EMTALA? Only applies in hospitals. Hospitals must transfer every patient after MSE is preformed. All staff are required to maintain ACLS certifications under EMTALA. Requires a hospital to perform a medical screening on anyone who presents to the emergency department. Requires hospitals to provide a medical screening exam (MSE) and, if needed, clinical stabilization, to any individual who comes to hospital seeking care. 561 / 1231 In the case of suspected, but unconfirmed, medical errors and potential harm, risk managers should: Work with the physician toward resolution of the situation. Assume the best, do nothing. Ask the patient about the incident. Tell the family members. Work with the physician toward resolution of the situation. 562 / 1231 All of the following are core components of systemic decision-making, **except**: Ethics consultations Unanimous agreement among the participants Documentation Verification of the facts Ethics consultations and decision-making done systematically will help to ensure that ethical principles are met. 563 / 1231 Decisions from the Ethics Committee are: Directives for care To determine futile care Non-binding To control treatment costs Decisions from Ethics Committee are non-binding -consultative only. The Ethics Commitee's goal is to point out ethical dilemmas, not mandate treatment. 564 / 1231 Ethical decisions are primarily based on what while legal decisions are primarily based on what? Law; Common Good Morality; Law The Golden Rule; Morality Common Good; Law Ethical Decisions are based on what is best for the common good and Legal Decisions are based on statutes and case law. 565 / 1231 Which of the following topics is **not** typically addressed in culturally appropriate care? Communication Non-discrimination Equitable patient care Societal policy The relevant issues are: communication, community engagement, workforce training, cultural respect, equitable treatment, etc.. 566 / 1231 An 84-year-old woman with severe Alzheimer's disease at your facility has lost the ability to communicate and did not appoint a proxy. Family members do not agree on care plans. Select the **most appropriate** next step. Ask another, non-attending physician for their opinion. Institute your care plan and do what you think is the single best course of action. Pursue an ethics committee evaluation. Follow the wishes of the eldest child. In order to determine the best course of action, with the most considerations, in cases such as there it's crucial to evaluate the options with the ethics committee. 567 / 1231 All of the following statements about advance directives are true, **except**: The patient's right for advance directives is based on the ethical principle of autonomy. Advance directives are the patient's right based on ethical and legal statutes. The completion of advanced directives demonstrates a patient’s capacity. Patients with advanced directives are less likely to undergo unwanted medical interventions. Advanced directives only indicate preference for when capacity is lost and can therefore not be used as an indicator. 568 / 1231 In cases of futile care, what's the proper course of action? Involve the court, immediately Abandon the patient Proceed with treatment regardless of futility Negotiate with the patient and surrogates It is recommend to negotiate with the patient and surrogates, and health care providers, if necessary. Use the Ethics Committee 569 / 1231 What is the primary guidance in cases of futile care? Physicians do not have obligations to deliver a pointless treatment Physicians must deliver any care requested by a surrogate Clinical staff may decline only for what religion tell us. The ethics committee dictates what treatment the patient must have Physicians do not have an obligation to deliver care that, in their best judgment, will not have a reasonable chance of benefiting the patient. 570 / 1231 Who acts on behalf of the patient when a patient cannot communicate decisions? The hospital's ethics committee. Surrogates. The hospital administrator. The primary insurance company. The individual who is legally authorized to make health care decisions on behalf of a patient who is unable to make or communicate decisions. 571 / 1231 In healthcare, who typically determines a patient's capacity to make decisions? The patient's family. A lawyer. A physician. A judge. Capacity is normally determined by a physician or a ...psychiatric review. 572 / 1231 Within the context of healthcare decision-making, what does 'capacity' refer to? The legal power to act on another's behalf. The mental fortitude to make a rational decision. The hospital's resources. The patient's physical strength. Capacity refers to a mental ability to make a rational decision, including perceiving and appreciating relevant facts. 573 / 1231 Which is an example of life-sustaining treatment? Seeking a second opinion. Intubation Requesting a clearer explanation of a surgery. Reviewing medical bills. Life-sustaining includes intubation, mechanical ventilation, renal dialysis, artificial nutrition and hydration and antibiotics. 574 / 1231 Which of the following is NOT true regarding child abuse and neglect reporting? Child abuse and neglect reporting laws have been enacted in every state in the U.S. Healthcare practitioners are voluntary reporters of child abuse Practitioners face possible litigation for failure to act when they have a suspicion of child abuse Practitioners are generally given immunity from liability when reporting in good faith Healthcare practitioners are mandatory reporters of child abuse. 575 / 1231 To whom does the Patient Self-Determination Act obligate entities to provide information regarding advance directives? Hospitals, health maintenance organizations, and home healthcare services only Hospitals and physician's offices only Only hospitals that receive Medicare and Medicaid funding Hospitals, physician's offices, health maintenance organizations, and home healthcare services Hospitals, health maintenance organizations (HMOs), and home healthcare services are mandated to provide information regarding advance directives. 576 / 1231 Which of the following is NOT needed to enact a DNR? Physician order Documented education of patient, family, and staff An advance directive Clear policy and procedure A DNR does not require advanced directives to be enacted, only a physician's order, education, and clear policies. 577 / 1231 What is a key requirement for a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid? Requires advance directive. It must be activated by a judge. Requires family consent and documentation. Requires clear policy and procedure. DNR orders require a physician order and documentation in the medical record, along with clear policy and procedure. 578 / 1231 Under what condition can patient autonomy be set aside, according to the materials? If the patient is deemed unable to make their own decisions. If the healthcare provider disagrees with the patient's decision. Never, patient autonomy is absolute If the patient's family disagrees with the patient's decision. Autonomy is important, but it can be set aside if the patient lacks the capacity to make informed decisions. 579 / 1231 What documents may be included in legally sound advance directives? Last will and testament Medical history and physician's notes Medical Insurance card and Patient Bill of Rights Living will and durable power of attorney Advance directives often include a living will, which outlines healthcare wishes, and a durable power of attorney, which appoints someone to make decisions. 580 / 1231 What is a key feature of an advance directive? It cannot be changed once created. It is governed at the state level. It requires approval from a physician. It is only applicable during emergencies. Advance directives are governed at the state level and provide instructions regarding a person's healthcare wishes. 581 / 1231 To what does the Patient Self-Determination Act NOT apply? Health maintenance organizations Private physician offices Hospitals Nursing homes The Patient Self-Determination Act applies to hospitals, nursing homes, and health maintenance organizations but not private physician offices. 582 / 1231 What is a key element of the Patient Self-Determination Act? Guaranteeing patients' rights to make healthcare decisions. Limiting patient access to medical records. Mandating specific treatments. Allowing physicians to override patient wishes. The Patient Self-Determination Act focuses on ensuring that competent patients can make legally enforceable decisions about their health care. 583 / 1231 Which of the following actions demonstrates respecting a patient's moral obligations in healthcare? Ignoring a patient's cultural beliefs Communicating honestly about the diagnosis Forcing treatment plans Sharing patient details with the public Moral obligations in healthcare emphasize respecting patient privacy and communicating honestly about all aspects of their care. 584 / 1231 What does the ethical principle of non-maleficence primarily aim to do? Avoid causing harm to patients. Ensure fairness in healthcare distribution. Promote patient autonomy. Maximize benefits for patients. Non-maleficence centers on the commitment to not inflict harm and to prevent harm whenever possible. 585 / 1231 Which ethical principle concerns the ability of patients to make decisions without undue influence? Non-maleficence Autonomy Beneficence Justice Autonomy emphasizes the importance of respecting an individual's ability to make informed decisions about their own care. 586 / 1231 Which type of law involves regulations and rules implemented by a federal or state agency? Common law Statutory law Case law Administrative law Administrative law is created by agencies to provide direction for carrying out the purposes of acts it oversees. 587 / 1231 Which of the following is **not** a category of key regulations and laws in healthcare? Patient Care Employment Workplace Safety Marketing Key regulations and laws typically address patient care, data management, payment, employment, and workplace safety. 588 / 1231 Match the Term with the correct definition in risk management: Occurrence = An unexpected patient medical intervention, intensity of care. Sentinel Events = An unanticipated event in a healthcare setting resulting in death or serious physical injury to a patient Occurrence Screening = System that utilizes and define records. Incident Reporting system = Identify the events and report or document. Identifying and tracking metrics can help provide effective tools and metrics for a risk register. 589 / 1231 Match Types include with Professionals Credentialing: Nurse anesthetists = Verification licenses. Nurse midwives = Competency of the performance skill. Physician assistant = Professional licenses. Other Independent Licensed Professional = Background checks. Allied healthcare Professionals Credentialing is mainly governed by licenses and regulations. 590 / 1231 Associate Duty of Care with its corresponding duty of loyalty: Duty to act in good faith = No competing with the entity. Duty to act as a prudent person = No usurping opportunities. Duty to act in the best interest of the entity = No personal enrichment. Duty to act for all laws and regulations = No disclosure of confidential information. The Duty of Care aspect of Risk Managment ensures a healthy enterprise and helps prevent damage. 591 / 1231 Associate each risk treatment with the most applicable technique: Avoidance = Deciding not to perform high-risk procedures. Loss Reduction = Implementing an efficient employee termination process. Transfer = Cyber-security Insurance. Segregation = Storing duplicate records. Different situations require different approaches during risk-treatment plans. 592 / 1231 Connect the definitions to the phases of Risk Management: Identify and Analyze loss exposure = High risk assessment, and stakeholder involvement. Monitor and evaluate RMP = Checking the effectiveness of the controls. Implement the technique = Cooperation and application. Examine Alternative techniques/treatments = Reduce Likelihood. Following these steps is essential to proper risk management. 593 / 1231 Indicate the type of risk related to an organization, and the factor that impacts that type of risk: Staff-Related Risks = Policies about confidentiality. Patient Care Risks = EMTALA. Financial Risks = Cyber Security. Business Continuity Risks = Essential functions. Each risk category is essential to incorporate into a Risk Management Program for a health organization. 594 / 1231 Associate the risk types with their definition relating to a healthcare organization's Enterprise Risk Management: Operational Risks = Risks that arise from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, or systems. Clinical & Patient Safety Risks = Risks related to failures in following evidence-based practices, medication errors, and wrong-site surgery. Hazard Risks = Risks that can threaten physical property. Strategic Risks = Risks related to losses to public image and reputation. Healthcare organizations must understand the potential risks in each of these categories to create a more streamlined risk management environment. 595 / 1231 Associate the major functional areas of risk management with their focus: Loss Prevention and Reduction = Minimizing the likelihood and severity of potential losses. Claims Management = Efficiently processing and resolving claims to minimize financial impact. Risk Financing = Determining the most cost-effective way to pay for potential losses. Regulatory and Accreditation Compliance = Ensuring adherence to all applicable standards and regulations. A robust risk management framework includes multiple approaches. These functional areas should work together to create a culture of risk awareness in the facility. 596 / 1231 Connect the risk exposure to its corresponding element: Values = The ethical or financial principles that could be compromised. Perils = Potential hazards or dangers that could lead to a loss. Consequence = The result or impact of the risk event occurring. Loss = The actual damage or harm resulting from the risk event. Risk exposure elements are used to understand the potential impact of an incident. Organizations evaluate these elements to identify how to treat potential occurrences. 597 / 1231 Match each element with the related element of a Risk Management Program (RMP): Organizational Commitment & Support = Essential for allocating resources and fostering a risk-aware culture. Formal & Informal Risk Management Activities = Ensuring systematic processes for risk identification and mitigation. Develop Outcome Measures = Allows for assessing the effectiveness of risk management interventions. Provide Visibility and Education = Enhances awareness, understanding, and engagement across the organization An effective risk management program requires buy-in from all areas of the organization. Visibility and education promote engagement and help ensure success. 598 / 1231 Match the concepts with their core ideas: Adverse outcomes = protection for data relating hearing standards = reviewed providers to ensure actions taken are objective patient medical intervention = an unexpected event Occurrence Screening = which medical records are screened Adverse outcomes often happen with medical interventions so make make sure that they are screened. 599 / 1231 Match the Credentialing and the Privileging with the correct action Credentialing claims = Governing boards are subject to such claims. Legal Duties = Federal & state laws, Cops, accredidation bidies Privileges = Process the hospital uses to review assests. telemedicine credentialing = policy tat mitigates it Both boards and policies affect credentialing and its claim. 600 / 1231 Associate each of the following to its main process: credentialing decisions = A physician may challenge the decision through fair hearing telemedicine services = Credentialing process for distant providors Counsel medical staff billaws = Review with medical staff billows Primary Risk data = Verfication from primeiry sources Credentialing and Privilidging are key aspects of all types of medical safety. 601 / 1231 Associate each of the following techniques with its Risk Type. Loss Reduction = Reduce Consequenses Duplication = Type of Transfer Avoidance = Type of technique Medical Insurance = Type of Transfer Knowing which tecnique to use for various risks is key to Risk Mitigation. 602 / 1231 Match the stages of Risk Management with the common method/practices within that stage: High-volume Probability = Identifying high risk (severity) cases Root Cause anyaslis = Analyzing loss exposure Risk Register = Assesment Reporting = Incident reporting The Risk Management stage should consist of everything from indentifying an incident to reporting said incident. 603 / 1231 Match the ERM Risk Domain to it's core concepts: Patient Safety Risk = Failure to follow EBP Technology Risks = Hardware Devices & tools Financial risks = Loss of finanacial assests through liability judgements Strategic risks = Intangible losses to public image and reputation ERM Risk Domains cover everything from patient safety to overall reputation. 604 / 1231 Match the following statements of Risk Management and Risk Governance with the correct `Board Responsibility`: Values, Perils, Consequences = Identify risk exposure Job Description for the Risk Manager = Accurate, comprehensive job description Formal risk management activities = Establishing formal and informal risk management activities RM topics at orientation and CME = Provide visibility and education The risk manager and the board should work together to ensure Value, Perils, and Consequences are all identified. 605 / 1231 Match the following risk management activities with the appropriate phase in the risk management process based on commonly accepted ERM framworks: Loss Control Technique Implementation = Risk Mitigation Claims Management = Risk Financing Regulatory Compliance Audits = Risk Assessment and Monitoring Data Security Planning = Risk Prevention The phases of risk management form a continuous cycle, each equally important for the overall success of the program. 606 / 1231 Match the risk exposure with the appropriate risk exposure categories: HIPAA Violations = Patient Care-Related Risks Peer Review Bias = Medical Staff-Related Risks OSHA Non-Compliance = Employee-Related Risks Boiler and Machinery Malfunctions = Property-Related Risks Understanding the different categories of risks is crucial for effective risk management planning and mitigation. 607 / 1231 Match the following elements of a Risk Management Program (RMP) with their descriptions: Organizational Commitment & Support = Ensuring leadership demonstrates investment in risk mitigation. Defined Authority, Role & Description = Establishing clear lines of responsibility and expectations for personnel involved in risk management. Formal & Informal Risk Management Activities = Implementing structured and ad-hoc approaches to identifying, assessing, and controlling risks. Visibility and Education = Promoting awareness and understanding of risk management principles and practices throughout the organization. A comprehensive RMP requires commitment at all levels, clear roles, both structured and ad-hoc activities, and continuous education. 608 / 1231 For policies and procedures (P&Ps) related to risk management, including cross-references to similar policies on related subjects should be omitted due to regulatory constraints. True False Cross-references may provide a more complete context of the overall risk management strategy by pointing back to similar and related policies. 609 / 1231 When evaluating options in RM techniques, `Separation` is a means to increase the `likelihood` of potential losses. True False `Separation` of assets reduces the potential severity of losses. 610 / 1231 The implementation of a formal risk identification system obviates the necessity for informal risk identification methods due to its structured and comprehensive approach. True False Both formal and informal risk management methods provide distinct benefits in a broader strategy. 611 / 1231 During risk analysis, if a risk is deemed to have 'rare' likelihood and 'catastrophic' consequences, it invariably warrants the highest level of immediate mitigation, irrespective of cost considerations. True False Mitigation prioritisation may factor in costs with a risk-benefit analysis. 612 / 1231 In Occurrence Reporting, the 'treatment' is a specific example of a reportable incident. True False The prompt reporting of safety incidents is crucial for proactive risk mitigation. 613 / 1231 The assessment of organizational risk demands that all stakeholders are given equitable prospects for feedback, though their input need not be explicitly integrated. True False Stakeholder input should drive the feedback loop of the risk process. 614 / 1231 A healthcare trustee's duty of loyalty permits them to leverage inside information for personal financial advantage, provided it does not directly harm the healthcare entity. True False The duty of loyalty strictly prohibits healthcare trustees from using inside information for personal gain, regardless of direct harm to the entity. 615 / 1231 In the context of risk management, an organization's 'values' are typically defined by the potential financial exposure in a worst-case scenario. True False An organization’s values usually refer to the principles and ethical standards that guide its operations, not its financial risks. 616 / 1231 In enterprise risk management, 'Risk Assessment' is the final phase where all potential risks are quantified economically using Monte Carlo simulations. True False Risk assessment is not the end. Monitoring is still required. Also, risk assessment is a broader process involving identification, analysis, and evaluation, not simply economic quantification. 617 / 1231 The implementation of risk management policies and procedures removes the need to maintain confidentiality of ethical breaches. True False Maintaining confidentiality and addressing ethical concerns are crucial aspects of risk management, even with implemented policies. 618 / 1231 It is unnecessary to quantify risk as long as you are able to identify the costs associated to it. False True Risk assessments needs to identify the cost of risk and the tolerance for risk to be effective in the management process. 619 / 1231 Risk identification solely relies on traditional accident reports; employee interviews are not necessary. True False Risk identification involves a variety of methods; an organization should conduct employee interviews during the process, as well. 620 / 1231 Maintain confidentiality and ethical issues as it relates to healthcare policy, procedures, and best practices, is not an important role of risk managers. True False Risk managers have a responsibility to maintain and uphold confidentiality and ethical issues. They take responsibility for their work, including understanding the law and ethics surrounding it. 621 / 1231 An organization needs visibility and training on risk management, particularly in an orientation setting, to aid in organizational comittment. True False Introducing and including training to an organization helps aid in organizational committment, where employees are aware of the Risk Management topics. 622 / 1231 Information & communication, risk assessment, and monitoring are all components of enterprise risk management. True False Enterprise risk management is a framework that includes all of the components stated to help manage risk holistically. 623 / 1231 According to HIPPA Law, health trustees are obligated to ensure all reasonable and necessary steps are implemented to take compliance with all applicable laws and regulations. True False Board members must ensure that the healthcare provider adheres to the laws and regulations set forth at the state, national, local, and federal level. 624 / 1231 The governing board's legal duty of loyalty requires the board to eliminate opportunities for personal financial gain using the entity's resources. True False The duty of loyalty ensures that a board member will not use his/her position to make personal profits, or use the company's proprietary information for gain. 625 / 1231 A health care organization's risk management program should focus solely on financial risks. True False Risk management should consider all forms of risk including financial, operational, and clinical risks. 626 / 1231 A risk manager's role includes identifying and applying risk-increasing techniques to an organization. True False The risk manager identifies and applies appropriate risk financing techniques to the organization to *reduce* potential losses. 627 / 1231 A risk management plan needs updating only when significant organizational changes occur. True False Risk management plans should be updated regularly, not just during significant organizational changes, to ensure ongoing effectiveness and relevance. 628 / 1231 Medical staff credentialing is primarily governed by CMS conditions of participation. True False Medical Staff Credentialing is mainly governed by Accreditation standards and state law. 629 / 1231 A hospital-informed consent policy and procedure should provide clinical staff with methods for explaining the risks and benefits of specific Procedures. True False A hospital-informed consent policy and procedure should provide clinical staff with general categories of procedures for which documented informed consent is required 630 / 1231 In assessing the impact of IT systems during a ransomware attack, monthly software updates are the highest priority. True False The absence of a firewall is the highest priority as it leaves the system vulnerable. 631 / 1231 Legal and regulatory risks is managing the public image and reputation. True False Strategic risks is managing the public image and reputation. Legal and regulatory risks include failure to identify, manage, and monitor legal & regulatory mandates. 632 / 1231 The primary scope of a peer review is to increase profitability, not for providing quality of care. True False Peer review is an important tool for improving quality of patient care and for managing providers who may have quality of care issues. HCQIA established protection for data relating to adverse outcomes that were created or discussed during the peer review. 633 / 1231 A 'sentinel event' refers to a minor near-miss incident that poses no real threat to patient safety. True False Not really. Sentinel events tracking; claims; indicators; complains; flowcharts and committee meetings are actually all components of **formal** risk identification systems. 634 / 1231 Effective implementation of a Risk Management (RM) program is possible without cooperation between RM professionals and managers. True False Effective Risk Management (RM) implementation requires cooperation on technical decisions made by Risk Management (RM) professionals and managerial decisions made by managers. 635 / 1231 The scope of a risk management program always excludes employee-related risks like OSHA compliance. True False The risks covered by the Risk Management Program may include employee-related risks 636 / 1231 A consultant prosthodontic is a degree that Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi doesn't have. True False It is a degree that Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi has: SB-Prosth. 637 / 1231 A duty of care means you must not compete with the entity. True False A duty of loyalty means you must not compete with the entity. Duty of care means you must act in good faith as a reasonable, prudent person. 638 / 1231 A hospital should not take all responsible steps to comply with laws and regulations. True False The hospital has a legal duty to: direct all reasonable steps to be taken by medical staff to meet all legal standards as well as take all reasonable steps to comply with all laws and regulations. 639 / 1231 The terms 'incident reporting' and 'occurence reporting' are interchangable. True False Reporting incidents and reporting occurrences are two separate things. An occurence is an unexpected medical intervention or care, where an incident is staff giving clear guidelines to a reportable procedure. 640 / 1231 Business continuity risks only pertain to financial losses and not to essential functions. True False Business continuity risks encompass various factors including essential functions, incident command, mitigation, and recovery. 641 / 1231 A risk assessment matrix solely considers the frequency of an event, not the potential impact. True False A risk assessment matrix typically considers both the likelihood (or frequency) of an event and the potential impact (or severity) to determine the level of risk. 642 / 1231 One of the key attributes of a Risk Management Program (RMP) is visibility. True False Key attributes of a Risk Management Program include: Authority; visibility; communication; coordination and accountability. 643 / 1231 A risk management plan is required to be updated tri-annually to maintain compliance. True False A formal timeline for updating the risk management plan is not specified. The plan should be updated regularly and reviewed to ensure it remains accurate and relevant. 644 / 1231 Risk management operations include claims processing, but not the development of a RM plan. True False Risk management operations include developing a risk management plan and policy statement. 645 / 1231 According to risk management principles, it is acceptable to enrich yourself personally at the company's expense. True False Acting with integrity is vital for reducing risk. The healthcare trustee’s duties include: No competing with the entity; No disclosure of confidential information; No usurping opportunities for personal financial gain and no personal enrichment at the entity expense. 646 / 1231 A risk management plan does not need to be updated regularly. True False A risk management plan should be updated regularly (concerning purpose, overview, structure, and process of risk management activities). 647 / 1231 A risk management program's (RMP) primary purpose is to safeguard a Healthcare Organization's (HCO) assets against loss. True False The primary goal of an RMP is indeed to protect an HCO's assets and minimize the impact of losses. 648 / 1231 When discussing business impact, the Board does not have a legal obligation to understand financial risks. True False Part of the Board function is to understand business impact and what would occur if financial security or data was at risk. 649 / 1231 If the Board is under the impression that the organisation is running under compliance and security protocols it is unnecessary to request confirmation. True False The Board is legally obligated to request confirmation that the organization is operating securely,. 650 / 1231 In the event of a catastrophic medical incident, the Risk Management Department are not responsible for liaising with the media. True False In this event it is of paramount importance that an official press release is offered. 651 / 1231 It is required that the healthcare organization check physician sanctions. True False Checking physician sanctions or legal issues is an important element of safety and transparency. 652 / 1231 If ransomware enters a system, a critical data finding involves the absence of a firewall between the network and hosted digital backup storage. True False Without a firewall, threat actors can steal data, infect it with malware and demand monetary compensation. 653 / 1231 A professional liability insurance policy with an exclusion for telemedicine necessarily requires the addition of a specific endorsement. True False If a provider does not obtain a specific endorsement, their coverage may not be included with telemedicine. 654 / 1231 A 'Physician Credentialing Policy' should not be developed amongst the Medical Staff and hospital administration. True False The 'Physician Credentialing Policy' should be carefully developed amongst both parties. 655 / 1231 The hospital's credentialing policy should indicate whether medical staff individuals are required to secure malpractice insurance. True False The hospital's policy on medical staff will indicate this. 656 / 1231 Medical staff credentialing is governed only by federal mandates and is not variable across different states. True False Medical staff credentialing occurs on both the federal and state level, in alignment with federal mandates. 657 / 1231 Employee-related risks encompass elements like OSHA regulatory compliance. True False OSHA, or occupational , health and safety guidelines, are employee related. 658 / 1231 Risk control implementations do not require collaboration. True False Collaboration is necessary as risk affects many members of staff. 659 / 1231 There is no reason to follow the policy if it disrupts the routine workflow. True False The hospital policy is in place for patient and hospital safety. 660 / 1231 Risk can not be quantified. True False Risk can be quantified, which is very important for documentation purposes. 661 / 1231 An efficient Risk Management team avoids collaborating with other departments to promote a strong safety culture. True False It is pertinent that the Risk Management team builds a collaborative environment for quality patient care. 662 / 1231 Healthcare organizations must follow legislative regulatory mandates. True False All healthcare organizations must follow legislative regulatory guidelines. 663 / 1231 Control activities are part of Enterprise Risk Management, as well as assessing risk. True False Control activities are part of Enterprise Risk Management framework. 664 / 1231 A risk assessment does not need to be performed in the event of a flood. True False The building infrastructure, patient data and staff safety must be secured after the event of a catastrophe. 665 / 1231 Risk categories include patient care, financial and regulatory categories. True False These are all fundamental categories to a risk management program. 666 / 1231 The Risk Management Department should not be reviewing federal regulations. True False It is required that the Risk Management Department is reviewing federal regulations. 667 / 1231 The Joint Commission does not provide standards related to patients’ safety. True False The Joint Commission is a health organization which is highly involved in patient safety. 668 / 1231 Risk mitigation and risk transferring is the same thing. True False Risk mitigation consists of taking steps to reduce it. Risk transference moves risks to a third party. 669 / 1231 A hospital’s Risk Management Department does need training and supervising staff. True False The hospital's Risk Management Department needs well-trained and supervised staff for effective risk management. 670 / 1231 The element of 'communication' as an attribute of RM programs refers only to communication with external regulatory bodies. True False Communication in RM programs involves all stakeholders, not only external regulatory individuals. 671 / 1231 Business continuity plans prioritize essential functions and recovery strategies. True False Business continuity is about planning essential functions mitigation and recovery, which includes essential functions and recovery. 672 / 1231 Risk assessment in health care is solely based on the volume of patient complaints received. True False Risk assessment considers severity, probability, and many risk factors, not just the volume of patient complaints received. 673 / 1231 Risk financing involves determining the creditworthiness of patients. True False Risk financing involves managing the financial impact of potential losses through methods like insurance strategies. 674 / 1231 The assessment of 'values, perils and consequences of loss' is not applicable in risk management. True False Assessing values, perils and consequences is a fundamental step in risk management, not inapplicable. 675 / 1231 Healthcare organizations are able to deny patient access to care based on their socioeconomic status. True False Healthcare organizations are unable to deny care based on socioeconomic status or other protected factors. 676 / 1231 Healthcare organizations are required to report all medical errors to the Joint Commission, regardless of severity. True False While reporting certain events is important, healthcare organizations usually have criteria for what needs to be reported. 677 / 1231 The EMTALA regulation is specifically designed to outline rules and procedures for patient discharge. True False EMTALA relates to the appropriate triage, stabilization and transfer of patients. 678 / 1231 A hospital must provide staff education and training on risk management topics only upon initial hire. True False Hospitals should offer ongoing education and training related to risk management to ensure optimal patient care. 679 / 1231 In the context of risk management, 'perils' refer to the values and ethics that guide an organization's decisions. True False In risk management, 'perils' refer to the causes of potential losses, not an organizations values. 680 / 1231 Peer review is mandated by federal law to oversee quality of patient care and is not protected from discovery. True False Peer review is both an important measure for quality and also is protected from discovery. 681 / 1231 Focused occurrence reporting' provides specific guidelines and examples of reportable incidents. True False Focused occurrence reporting includes staff being provided clear guidelines and specific examples of reportable medical incidents. 682 / 1231 An incident report is consistent with the routine care of a particular patient. True False An incident report documents events inconsistent with the routine care of a particular patient. 683 / 1231 Loss prevention focuses on decreasing the severity of potential losses. True False Loss prevention focuses on reducing the likelihood of losses, not the severity. Loss reduction focuses on severity. 684 / 1231 The Governing Board carries ultimate legal responsibility for all aspects of the healthcare entity. True False The governing board is responsible for all aspects of a healthcare entity, including quality of care. 685 / 1231 A risk register is used for identifying and treating risks. True False A risk register tracks identified risks and their planned treatments, not just identification. 686 / 1231 A risk management plan is not required to be updated regularly once established. True False A risk management plan should be updated regularly to remain effective and relevant. 687 / 1231 The primary purpose of an RM program is to safeguard the HCO's assets against loss and reduce the impact of losses when they occur. True False Risk management (RM) programs aim to protect assets and minimize the impact of losses. 688 / 1231 If leadership wants to improve the patient safety culture within the organization what action can be achieved most effectively? Share the names with supervisors of all employees who report incidents. Reduce budgets in departments that are prone to create higher claims volume. Implement an organizational culture where all employees can feel psychologically safe to report errors and have open discussions. Train all staff on the process of reporting incidents in a non-punitive process. Implementing an organizational culture where all employees can feel psychologically safe to report errors and have open discussions develops the team and also shows support to those that may need assistance with processes. Sharing staff names is inappropriate and detrimental. Incident reporting supports identifying issues. 689 / 1231 What is the greatest value of a culture of transparency with reporting outcomes and process measures? Ensures everyone knows about those medical staff that cause issues. Transparency allows leadership a method to remove staff with higher risk activities. Increases the chances an organization will win an award for safety. Helps to address systemic issues to develop improvements. The greatest effect from complete transparency involves developing the organization for constant improvement. Transparency provides opportunities to learn and supports accountability. 690 / 1231 A Risk Manager wants to improve the risk management program. Which of the following practices and processes creates the most sustainable program? Limit the data to claims payments only to focus on legal cases. Prioritize a compliance-driven approach and rely on external audits. Focus on a data-driven decision-making process with interdisciplinary collabartion to address issues. Focus on increasing efficiency by cutting staff. The best and most sustainable approach includes data-driven decision making with collaboration. This method tends to identify blind spots in the organization and provides opportunities for more collaboration. 691 / 1231 What action is most appropriate for Risk Management in response to an increase of malpractice claims? Develop policies to address the areas of increased malpractice rates. Provide training and implement quality control processes. Implement a peer-review system to evaluate all medical staff. Reduce all spending to offset the higher claim costs. Increase communication with legal counsel about future claims. Policies to address increased malpractice claims along with staff training supports a culture of increasing quality and controls the issues at hand. 692 / 1231 How can Risk Management improve patient safety and reduce medical errors over time? By implementing a blame-free culture that overlooks systemic factors contributing to errors. By creating a learning system where safety is a priority. It then uses data collection based on incidents to make improvements proactively. By relying solely on incident reporting without analyzing the underlying causes of errors. By focusing exclusively on punitive actions against healthcare professionals involved in errors. Long-term improvements in patient safety and reductions in medical errors come from creating a proactive learning system that uses data to make evidence based decisions. 693 / 1231 Within the risk assessment matrix which would be considered the most dangerous outcome and require the most intervention? an event rated as 'Likely' with a 'Minor' consequence. an event rated as 'Rare' given a 'Catastrophic' consequence. an event rated as 'Possible' with a 'Major' consequence. an event marked as 'Certain' with a 'Negligible' consequence. The best response involves reviewing the outcomes of the chart that shows risk levels. An event rated as 'Rare' with a 'Catastrophic' would require immediate focus, assuming there are no other events happening at a higher level. 694 / 1231 Healthcare risk management uses performance activity measures, outcome measures, and financial measures to assess the effectiveness of a Risk Management Program. Which measure below reflects financial measure? the decline in the number of malpractice suits filed annually. the percentage of staff completing continuing education on risk mitigation. the frequency of safety meetings. the total expenses for worker's compensation claims The best response involves measuring financial performance. Financial activities are often easily measured by metrics like 'the total expenses for worker's compensation claims'. 695 / 1231 In the context of developing a robust patient safety culture, what advanced strategy most effectively fosters accountability at all levels of a healthcare organization? Creating a 'just culture' that balances individual accountability with system-level improvements, supported by proactive risk assessments and continuous feedback mechanisms. Establishing a non-punitive reporting system for medical errors. Publicly recognizing individuals who report safety concerns. Implementing mandatory patient safety training for all employees. A 'just culture' that balances individual accountability with system-level improvements, supported by proactive risk assessments and continuous feedback mechanisms, most effectively fosters accountability. 696 / 1231 What considerations are most critical when developing outcome measures to assess the effectiveness of risk management activities related to patient safety in a large, integrated healthcare system? Focusing solely on easily quantifiable metrics, such as incident reporting rates. Developing a balanced scorecard approach including clinical outcomes, patient-reported outcomes, process measures, and cost-effectiveness metrics, adjusted for patient complexity and system-level interactions. Using only clinical outcomes data without considering patient-reported outcomes or experience measures. Relying solely on accreditation standards and regulatory requirements to define outcome measures. A balanced scorecard approach, including clinical outcomes, patient-reported outcomes, process measures, and cost-effectiveness metrics, adjusted for patient complexity and system-level interactions, is most critical in assessing risk management effectiveness. 697 / 1231 Which of the following reflects the highest level of sophistication in applying Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) within a complex hospital setting? Limiting FMEA to processes directly related to patient care. Using dynamic, cross-functional FMEA that includes real-time data feeds and predictive modeling to anticipate and prevent failures across interconnected systems. Conducting FMEA only after a sentinel event has occurred. Performing FMEA on individual pieces of equipment in isolation. The highest level of sophistication involves dynamic, cross-functional FMEA, incorporating real-time data feeds and predictive modeling to anticipate and prevent failures across interconnected systems. 698 / 1231 Considering the complexities inherent in healthcare settings, what advanced analytical technique enables the most comprehensive evaluation of the interactions and dependencies among multiple risk factors, facilitating a deeper understanding of potential cascading failures? SWOT analysis. Root cause analysis. Regression analysis. Fault tree analysis combined with Bayesian network modeling. Fault tree analysis, combined with Bayesian network modeling, provides the most comprehensive evaluation of complex interactions and dependencies among risk factors, facilitating a deeper understanding of potential cascading failures. 699 / 1231 When implementing risk reduction strategies related to technical and managerial decisions, which approach most effectively balances the need for standardization with the flexibility required to adapt to evolving clinical practices and technological advancements? Creating a framework of evidence-based guidelines with built-in mechanisms for continuous feedback, adaptation, and peer review. Developing highly prescriptive protocols and rigidly enforcing compliance. Implementing a moratorium on new technologies and clinical practices to minimize uncertainty. Relying solely on the expertise of individual clinicians to make risk-based decisions. A framework of evidence-based guidelines, incorporating continuous feedback, adaptation, and peer review, provides the optimal balance between standardization and flexibility in risk reduction strategies. 700 / 1231 Considering the increasing interconnectedness of healthcare systems, which strategy would best address the systemic risks associated with supply chain disruptions and ensure continuity of critical services? Diversifying suppliers and maintaining buffer stocks of essential supplies. Implementing a just-in-time inventory management system to minimize storage costs. Negotiating long-term contracts with primary suppliers to secure favorable pricing. Developing a resilient supply chain network with real-time monitoring, predictive analytics, and contingency plans for alternative sourcing and distribution. A resilient supply chain network, incorporating real-time monitoring, predictive analytics, and contingency plans, is the most effective strategy for ensuring continuity of critical services in interconnected healthcare systems. 701 / 1231 What is the role of Bayesian networks in advancing decision-making processes related to risk management within a healthcare setting? To provide a checklist of common risk factors, ensuring comprehensive coverage. To anonymize risk data. To enable probabilistic reasoning under uncertainty, facilitating dynamic risk assessments that incorporate new evidence and expert opinions. To streamline the data entry process of risk assessment. Bayesian networks provide probabilistic reasoning under uncertainty, facilitating dynamic risk assessments that incorporate new evidence and expert opinions, enhancing decision-making. 702 / 1231 How can healthcare facilities leverage actuarial science to improve their Risk Management program? To increase premiums. To precisely predict the number of future incidents. To determine employee benefits packages. To statistically forecast future losses, optimize insurance coverage, and establish appropriate self-insurance reserves. Actuarial science allows for the statistical forecasting of future losses, optimizing insurance coverage, and establishing appropriate self-insurance reserves, thus improving the Risk Management program. 703 / 1231 Within a healthcare organization, what strategy represents the most advanced approach to integrating ethical considerations into the risk management program? Developing a code of conduct that outlines ethical principles and expectations. Providing annual ethics training to all employees. Establishing an ethics committee to review cases involving ethical dilemmas. Implementing a proactive ethics consultation service integrated with risk assessments to identify and mitigate ethical risks throughout the organization. A proactive ethics consultation service integrated with risk assessments represents the most advanced approach to embedding ethical considerations into the risk management program. 704 / 1231 In the context of incident reporting systems, what enhancement would most significantly improve the ability to discern systemic vulnerabilities and prevent future adverse events? Implementing a natural language processing (NLP) engine to analyze incident reports, identify latent factors, and generate predictive risk alerts. Mandating the use of standardized incident reporting forms across all departments. Creating a centralized database to store all incident reports for retrospective review. Establishing a policy requiring incident reports to be submitted within 24 hours of the event. Implementing a natural language processing engine for incident report analysis provides the most significant improvement in identifying systemic vulnerabilities and preventing future adverse events. 705 / 1231 Considering the complexities of healthcare regulatory compliance, which methodology would provide the most robust and adaptive framework for proactively identifying and mitigating emerging regulatory risks? Implementing a static checklist-based compliance program. Relying solely on external legal counsel for regulatory updates and guidance. Establishing a real-time regulatory intelligence system integrated with predictive analytics to forecast regulatory changes and their potential impact. Conducting annual retrospective reviews of regulatory compliance based on past deficiencies. A real-time regulatory intelligence system, combined with predictive analytics, is the most robust and adaptive framework for proactively managing regulatory risks. 706 / 1231 When evaluating strategies for integrating risk management with healthcare organization governance, which approach most effectively ensures alignment with strategic objectives and accountability at all levels? Implementing a top-down risk management framework driven solely by executive leadership. Developing a decentralized risk management system with autonomous risk management units in each department. Creating a matrix organizational structure where risk management functions are embedded within each operational unit, overseen by a centralized risk management department with direct reporting to the board of trustees. Establishing a risk management committee composed of senior leaders from clinical and administrative departments. The most effective approach is a matrix structure, which ensures risk management is embedded throughout the organization, with oversight from a centralized department reporting directly to the board. 707 / 1231 In the context of risk financing within healthcare operations, which strategy exemplifies the most sophisticated approach to optimizing capital allocation while mitigating potential losses? Retrospective premium adjustments based solely on incurred losses. Implementing fixed deductible levels across all service lines. Captive insurance arrangements integrated with predictive analytics to forecast future claims. Transferring all insurable risks to a third-party commercial insurer. Sophisticated risk financing involves using predictive analytics combined with captive insurance to optimize capital allocation and mitigate losses. 708 / 1231 Which situation would be considered the highest risk for an organization? The legal department requires ethics approval. The organization has not outsourced their risk management. The organization has a ethics. Medical staff has a conflict of interest that could harm their patients. Medical staff is held to a higher standard. 709 / 1231 What is the most difficult consideration about including flexibility into P&Ps and policies? To ensure accountability, staff must adhere solely to written guidelines. Standard format. Providing an organization and the staff with guidance while enabling reasonable approaches. Easy to read. P&Ps must also provide flexibility. 710 / 1231 Which statement outlines the appropriate way to evaluate and mitigate risk? Rely solely on punitive measures. Prioritize the stakeholder. The healthcare facility should choose multiple metrics such as performance activity, outcome measures, and financial measures. Rely solely financial metrics. The healthcare facility should choose multiple metrics in order to improve strategy. 711 / 1231 How is duty of care balanced alongside medical staff's responsibility to provide competent and safe medical practices? Medical staff is responsible to act in good faith as a reasonable or prudent staff. Medical staff are required to act with safety. Medical staff are not necessarily held to external standards, and can use their own discretion as trained professionals. Over the course of a legal battle, medical staff are responsible for medical safety. Act in good faith as a reasonable or prudent staff. 712 / 1231 Which is the most effective way to improve patient safety culture and reduce medical errors in the long term? Implement educational action plans to address concerns that staff share and implement strategies for continuous learning and improvement. Emphasize documentation. Increase the number of audits. Implement penalties for staff so that they follow safety and regulatory guidelines. Educational Action Plans facilitate continuous learning and improvement. 713 / 1231 In managing risks related to credentialing and privileging, how can healthcare organizations best address potential conflicts of interest among members of the credentialing committee? Outsourcing credentialing decisions to an external organization to avoid internal conflicts of interest. Establishing recusal policies that require members to abstain from decisions involving individuals with whom they have a financial, personal, or professional conflict of interest. Relying on peer pressure and ethical guidelines to prevent conflicts of interest from influencing credentialing decisions. Disclosing relationships but allowing members to vote to ensure participation Members must abstain from decisions where they have a conflict of interest. 714 / 1231 How should a hospital-informed consent policy and procedure address the management of patients who refuse recommended treatment due to religious beliefs or cultural practices? Refer the patient to an ethics committee for evaluation and guidance, deferring to their recommendations regarding treatment options. Prioritize the physician's judgment and attempt to persuade the patient to accept treatment to ensure the best possible outcome. Detail processes for culturally sensitive communication, ensuring that patients fully understand the risks and benefits of their decision, and documenting the encounter thoroughly. Seek a court order to override the patient's refusal and administer treatment against their will to protect their health and well-being. Policies should emphasize culturally sensitive communication and thorough documentation to respect patient autonomy. 715 / 1231 Considering the dual goals of protecting peer review actions and promoting quality improvement, what strategy best balances confidentiality with transparency? Establishing a process for sharing anonymized peer review findings with relevant stakeholders to identify systemic issues and promote continuous learning. Outsourcing peer review to external consultants to ensure objectivity and avoid potential conflicts of interest. Maintaining strict confidentiality of all peer review proceedings, limiting access to only those directly involved in the review process. Disclosing peer review outcomes to patients and their families to increase transparency and enhance trust in the healthcare system. Sharing anonymized findings identifies systemic issues and promotes learning while protecting confidentiality. 716 / 1231 In the process of implementing and monitoring risk management policies and procedures, which strategy is most likely to foster a proactive and adaptive approach to risk mitigation? Focusing primarily on documentation and reporting to demonstrate adherence to regulatory requirements, without necessarily evaluating the effectiveness of policies and procedures. Establishing a continuous feedback loop that integrates real-time data analytics, stakeholder input, and regular updates to policies and procedures based on evolving risks and best practices. Conducting annual audits to assess compliance with existing policies and procedures, implementing corrective actions only when deficiencies are identified. Relying on external regulatory agencies to identify risk management gaps and issue compliance directives. A continuous feedback loop provides a proactive and adaptive approach, enabling policies and procedures to evolve with emerging risks and best practices. 717 / 1231 Given increasing concerns about data breaches and cybersecurity threats, what is the most strategic approach for integrating HAZMAT (Hazardous Materials) programs with broader healthcare safety programs? Outsourcing HAZMAT management to third-party vendors to ensure compliance with industry best practices. Maintaining HAZMAT programs as a separate and distinct function, focusing solely on compliance with environmental regulations. Integrating HAZMAT protocols with IT incident response plans to address potential data breaches resulting from environmental hazards or infrastructure failures. Prioritizing fire safety and emergency evacuation procedures while treating HAZMAT incidents as isolated events. Integrating HAZMAT protocols with IT incident response plans addresses data breaches resulting from environmental hazards or infrastructure failures. 718 / 1231 When distinguishing between 'occurrence reporting' and 'occurrence screening', what is the most critical factor that determines which method to use for a specific situation? The availability of resources, with occurrence reporting preferred when staff are available and occurrence screening used when resources are limited. The legal risk associated with the event, with occurrence reporting used only when there is a potential for litigation and occurrence screening used in all other cases. The perceived severity of the event, with occurrence reporting reserved for high-impact incidents and occurrence screening used for minor issues. The clarity and specificity of pre-defined criteria, with occurrence reporting used for events meeting explicit guidelines and occurrence screening used for broader monitoring. The key distinction relates to pre-defined criteria: occurrence reporting relies on clear guidelines, whereas occurrence screening involves broader monitoring against a defined list of patient occurrences. 719 / 1231 How can healthcare organizations most effectively foster a culture of accountability within their Risk Management Program? Relying primarily on punitive measures and disciplinary actions to deter non-compliance and ensure adherence to policies and procedures. Emphasizing individual responsibility over collective accountability to encourage personal ownership of risk management activities. Establishing clear lines of authority, promoting transparency in decision-making, and implementing mechanisms for feedback and continuous improvement at all levels of the organization. Delegating responsibility for risk management solely to the Risk Management Department to avoid burdening other staff members. Establishing clear lines of authority, promoting transparency, and implementing mechanisms for feedback and continuous improvement increase risk effectiveness. 720 / 1231 What is the most effective approach for implementing risk reduction strategies to address technical and managerial decisions within a healthcare organization? Treating technical and managerial decisions as separate and distinct, implementing risk reduction strategies independently within each domain. Delegating responsibility for risk reduction solely to technical experts without input from managerial staff. Establishing a cross-functional team composed of technical experts and managerial staff to collaboratively develop and implement risk reduction strategies that address both technical feasibility and operational impact. Prioritizing managerial decisions based on cost-effectiveness, deferring to technical experts only when regulatory compliance is at stake. A cross-functional team fosters collaboration to develop strategies that address both technical feasibility and operational impact. 721 / 1231 How should healthcare facilities use performance activity measures, outcome measures, and financial measures to evaluate the effectiveness of a Risk Management Program? Relying primarily on financial measures, such as reduced insurance premiums, to assess program effectiveness. Conducting periodic surveys of staff satisfaction to gauge perceptions of program effectiveness. Focusing on performance activity measures, such as the number of training sessions conducted, to demonstrate program activity and compliance. Establishing a balanced scorecard approach that integrates performance activity, outcome, and financial measures to provide a comprehensive assessment of program impact and identify areas for improvement. A balanced scorecard integrates performance activity, outcome, and financial measures to provide a comprehensive assessment. 722 / 1231 When structuring a Risk Management Operations program, what is the most effective strategy for balancing loss prevention, claims management, and risk financing to optimize resource allocation? Establishing a comprehensive, integrated approach that aligns loss prevention strategies with proactive claims management and strategic risk financing to minimize overall cost of risk. Allocating the majority of resources to claims management to minimize financial losses from adverse events. Prioritizing risk financing and insurance coverage to transfer financial risk to third parties. Decentralizing risk management operations, allowing individual departments to manage their own loss prevention and claims activities independently. A comprehensive, integrated approach minimizes the overall cost of risk by aligning strategies and optimizing resource allocation. 723 / 1231 In addressing risk exposure related to Values, Perils, and Consequence of Loss, how can a Risk Management Department most effectively integrate ethical considerations into its program? Developing a formal ethics framework that guides decision-making, incorporating stakeholder values, and promoting transparency in risk management processes. Focusing solely on financial metrics and compliance requirements to ensure objectivity and avoid subjective judgments. Delegating ethical oversight to the organization's legal counsel to ensure alignment with regulatory standards. Adopting a utilitarian approach, prioritizing actions that maximize benefits for the greatest number of stakeholders while minimizing harm. A formal ethics framework guides decision-making, incorporates stakeholder values, and promotes transparency in risk management processes. 724 / 1231 Considering the evolving landscape of healthcare regulations and accreditation standards, what methodology would best enable a Risk Management Department to maintain an up-to-date and effective risk management plan? Conducting a comprehensive review and revision of the risk management plan every five years to align with long-term strategic goals. Relying on external legal counsel to interpret regulatory changes and issue periodic compliance alerts. Adopting a reactive approach, updating the risk management plan only in response to significant incidents, audit findings, or regulatory penalties. Establishing a continuous monitoring and improvement process, integrating real-time data analytics, stakeholder feedback, and regular updates to policies and procedures. A continuous monitoring and improvement process is vital for adapting to evolving healthcare regulations and enhancing risk management effectiveness. 725 / 1231 When defining the authority and role of the Risk Management Department within a healthcare organization, which approach most effectively balances autonomy with accountability? Granting the risk manager full authority to implement changes without requiring approval from other departments. Outsourcing the risk management function to an external consulting firm to avoid internal conflicts of interest and ensure objectivity. Establishing a collaborative reporting structure where the risk manager reports directly to both the CEO and a board-level committee, with shared accountability across departments. Limiting the risk manager's role to data collection and analysis, deferring all decision-making to senior leadership. Sharing accountability across departments ensures collaboration and prevents the risk manager from being solely responsible. 726 / 1231 Within the framework of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM), what is the most strategic approach for a healthcare organization to address risks associated with emerging technologies, such as artificial intelligence in diagnostics? Establishing a cross-functional team to evaluate ethical, legal, and clinical implications, combined with pilot programs to validate performance and safety. Outsourcing risk assessment to technology vendors to ensure compliance with industry standards and mitigate liability. Focusing primarily on data security protocols and HIPAA compliance to protect patient privacy and prevent data breaches. Adopting new technologies rapidly to gain a competitive edge, addressing risks reactively as they arise to avoid slowing innovation. Emerging technologies needs a strategic risks evaluation and controlled pilot programs before fully integrating to health operations. 727 / 1231 When evaluating the scope of a Risk Management Program (RMP), what consideration reflects the highest level of strategic alignment with patient safety and organizational goals? Balancing resources between employee-related risks and patient care-related risks Focusing on compliance with regulatory mandates, prioritizing documentation and reporting for external audits. Integrating lessons learned from past claims and litigation to proactively address areas of vulnerability and prevent future recurrence. Ensuring that all risks identified are insurable under current policies to limit financial exposure. An effective RMP integrates past experiences and proactively addresses areas of vulnerability to prevent future occurrences. 728 / 1231 Which scenario represents a 'very high risk' according to the Risk Assessment Matrix? An event rated as certain with catastrophic impact An event rated as moderate with possible impact. An event rated as rare with a minor impact An event rated as unlikely with negligible consequences High likelihood of an event with severe outcome(s). 729 / 1231 What is the significance of 'Essential functions' in business continuity risks? The core set of activities that must be maintained during a disruption. Functions that are outsourced to third-party vendors Activities not related to direct patient care Functions that are easy to recover in a disaster Essential functions are those that must be maintained during a service disruption. 730 / 1231 What is the primary purpose of 'Focused Occurrence Reporting'? Eliminate all record-keeping that is clinical or financial. Provide staff with clear guidelines and specific examples of reportable incidents Automatically blame staff for common incidents. Share all details with insurers Staff are provided clear guidelines and specific examples of reportable incidents. 731 / 1231 How does the Healthcare Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA) protect certain peer review actions? Preventing patients from filing malpractice lawsuits Guaranteeing complete anonymity for peer reviewers Shielding all hospital data from external audits Ensuring fair hearing standards and objectivity. HCQIA provides clear standards and processes for objectively assessing the quality of care provided by medical professionals. 732 / 1231 Which of these risks is typically addressed by HAZMAT programs? Utility failure Data breach Workplace violence Environmental safety HAZMAT programs address environmental safety. 733 / 1231 You are creating a Risk Assessment Matrix. You determine an event is `Likely` to occur, and the Consequence would be `Moderate`. Using the matrix shown, what is the risk score? 12 8 4 20 Using the Risk Assessment Matrix, `Likely` (4) and `Moderate` (3) yields a value of 12: (4 * 3 = 12) 734 / 1231 What is the role of a risk manager in educating the board? Approving major capital expenditures. Conducting regular audits of clinical departments New member orientation & Periodically presenting RM topics Managing day-to-day operational decisions. A risk manager educates the board by providing new member orientation and by periodically presenting RM topics to the board. 735 / 1231 Which of the following is true regarding incident reports? They are subjective and not analyzed for trends. They are used only for legal purposes and are shared with external parties. They identify a cornerstone of a healthcare risk management program and are objective, coded and trended. They are not protected from discovery. Incident reports are an objective, coded, and analyzed data source used to improve a healthcare risk management program. 736 / 1231 A series of minor issues or inconsistencies in a healthcare setting, which individually may seem insignificant, would be categorized how? Indicators Major errors Acceptable variance Sentinel event A series of minor issues is best categorized as indicators. Indicators point to potential problems and should be addressed. 737 / 1231 In healthcare risk management, what is the primary aim of 'loss prevention and reduction'? To minimize the frequency and severity of losses To eliminate all potential losses regardless of cost To accept all risks without implementing any controls To shift the financial burden of losses to external parties Loss prevention and reduction strategies aim to reduce both the likelihood and the impact of potential losses, making it a proactive approach to risk management. 738 / 1231 What is the duty of loyalty for healthcare trustees? Maximizing personal financial gain at the entity's expense Avoiding conflicts of interest and acting in the best interest of the entity. Competing with the entity for personal business opportunities Disclosing confidential information to competitors The duty of loyalty requires trustees to prioritize the interests of the healthcare organization above their own, avoiding conflicts of interest and ensuring all actions benefit the entity. 739 / 1231 Which of the following best characterizes the 'Due Process' element in addressing risks related to credentialing and privileging? Ignoring practitioner concerns about fairness and equity Disclosing sensitive information without data controls Denying claims without any formal review Medical staff bylaws that include a hearing and appeal process to protect due process rights. Medical staff bylaws that include a hearing and appeal process are a better solution because they prioritize both fairness and accuracy in decision-making. 740 / 1231 What is one of the key considerations when facilities choose an appropriate Risk Management Program? The organization's size, scope of service and available resources. The CEO's personal risk tolerance The color scheme of the organization's logo The latest celebrity endorsements The size, scope of offered resources are important factors to consider when creating an effective RM program that fits the needs and capabilities of the facility. 741 / 1231 What is one of the most important functions of a hospital board, in relation to providing quality of patient care? Overseeing the hospital's social media presence. Board assigns authority to staff to ensure professional care to patients. Approving the hospital's marketing strategies. Managing the day-to-day operations of the hospital. The Board has a responsibility to assign medical staff reasonable authority to ensure that patients receive proper and professional medical care. 742 / 1231 What is a primary function of an 'occurrence reporting' system? To identify and document unexpected patient medical interventions. To solely focus on financial losses resulting from incidents To automatically penalize staff involved in medical errors To publicly disclose all adverse events to maintain transparency An occurrence reporting system is used to document any unexpected patient medical intervention, treatment or intensity of care outside the norm. 743 / 1231 How can healthcare facilities leverage education action plans to improve their Risk Management program? By providing general information to staff without focusing on specific risks By focusing education on key risk management activities and tailoring them to address identified areas needing improvement. By outsourcing all training and educational activities related to risk. By limiting education to only new employees during orientation. Education action plans are most effective when they target the specific activities that constitute risk management, such as incident reporting, patient safety protocols, and compliance with regulations, and when they are tailored to address areas where improvement is needed. 744 / 1231 In the context of risk management, what is the goal of 'separation' as a risk treatment technique? To transfer the financial burden of risk to another party To physically disperse assets or operations to minimize the impact of a single event To eliminate all potential sources of risk To isolate hazardous activities from the rest of the organization Separation involves dispersing assets or operations to different locations to reduce the potential impact of a single event, such as a natural disaster or a security breach. 745 / 1231 Which statement best describes how a hospital maintains compliance with established policies and procedures? By limiting policy reviews to emergency situations only. By adhering strictly to the original policies without updates By focusing primarily on policies related to financial matters By measuring compliance, comparing performance against goals, and keeping P&Ps current. Compliance is best achieved through regular measurement, performance comparison, and keeping Policies and Procedures current with regular updates. 746 / 1231 What is the key focus of Risk Management Operations? Managing the RM department through loss prevention, risk financing and regulatory compliance. Delegating risk oversight to external consulting firms Focusing solely on claims management after an event occurs Minimizing budget allocations for risk prevention activities Risk management operations are centered around proactively managing risks through various strategies, including loss prevention, claims management, and ensuring regulatory compliance and Bioethics. 747 / 1231 What is the primary objective of a Risk Management Program (RMP) in relation to Values, Perils, and Consequence of Loss? To increase the organization's profitability. To ensure all losses are covered by insurance. To shift all potential risks to external parties. To identify and mitigate risk exposure. Identifying risk exposure allows for the implementation of targeted strategies to reduce the likelihood and impact of potential losses. 748 / 1231 What are the important elements for Risk Identification Systems -- in Formal style? Incident reports and sentinel events Anecdotal evidence. Gossip and speculation. Rumors and hearsay. These provide documentation. 749 / 1231 How can a Risk Assessment Matrix determine levels of risk? Judging Likelihood against Consequence. Rating financial investments. Assessing employee morale. Calculating marketing spending. Determines levels of risk. 750 / 1231 Why should you develop outcome measures to assess effectiveness of RM activities? To assess insurance risk To understand the results of RM activities To assess staff. To minimize paperwork creation This generates feedback on what RM can contribute. 751 / 1231 Why is 'maintain confidentiality and ethical issues' relevant? Improve Brand Reputation Protect patient rights Cost reduction Employee Satisfaction This relates to patient rights, and regulatory compliance. 752 / 1231 What are the common strategies for dealing with identified risks? Occasional monitoring Risk avoidance and sharing Ignoring minor risks Reactive response Risk avoidance and sharing 753 / 1231 What should a hospital-informed consent policy and procedure indicate? Steps for the marketing department. Steps to properly explain a procedure to a patient. Steps to pressure a patient to consent. Steps for the billing department. A hospital-informed consent policy and procedure steps to properly explain a procedure to a patient. 754 / 1231 Which statement is correct? There is no difference between credentialing and privileging. Credentialing/Privileging refers to how a hospital authorizes a physician. Credentialing means the same as marketing. Privileging refers to accounting processes. Credentialing/Privileging is about authorization. 755 / 1231 What is the HCQIA established to protect regarding peer review? Protection for data. Protection for C-Suite bonuses. Protection for PTO collection. Protection for salary of staff. Protection for data is secured for adverse outcomes. 756 / 1231 Of the healthcare safety programs, with which is 'HAZMAT' associated? Marketing plan Environmental plan Facility expansion Stock Market position. HAZMAT is a component of environmental planning. 757 / 1231 What is the purpose of education action plans? Increase patient volume. Control costs. Increase revenue. Address activities. Education action plans address medical activities. 758 / 1231 What is the purpose of well-written guidelines for managing risks in Policies & Procedures (P&Ps)? Managing risks. Comply with a standard format. Offer advice for staff. Reduce accidents. Policies should conform to a standard format. 759 / 1231 What is the objective when a hospital implements & monitors? Legal policy. Technical/managerial decisions. Insurance requirements. Staff recommendations. Decisions here are based on technical/managerial decisions. 760 / 1231 A hospital decides to close its pediatric unit due to financial constraints, transferring all pediatric patients to a nearby hospital. Which risk management technique is being applied? Avoidance Loss reduction Segregation Loss prevention By closing the pediatric unit, the hospital is avoiding risks associated with pediatric care. 761 / 1231 When prioritizing assessed risks, what should an initial risk analysis provide? An exact calculation of potential losses. A complete list of all possible insurance policies. Means of assessing risks. Specific risk calculations. The initial means is for prioritizing risks. 762 / 1231 How does 'occurrence reporting' differ from 'occurrence screening'? They mean the same thing. Reporting has lower priority. Screening looks at the weather; reporting does other factors. Screening looks for defined problems; reporting is for unexpected events. Reporting looks for unexpected events. 763 / 1231 What is the purpose of incident reporting? Any happening that is not consistent with patient care Managing the cafeteria menu. Tracking positive feedback from patients and staff Planning marketing activities. Incident reporting is any happening with patient care. 764 / 1231 What characterizes 'high-volume' events when identifying and analyzing loss exposure? Severe impact but rare. Minimal impact but occur frequently. Requires high level of funding. Requires high level staff training. High-volume is classified as minimal, but frequent. 765 / 1231 A healthcare system experiences frequent data breaches that expose patient information. Which type of ERM risk is most directly highlighted by this situation? Operational risks Hazard risks Strategic risks Financial risks Operational risks refer to employee errors, or failed internal processes, people, or systems. 766 / 1231 Which factor helps an organization select an appropriate Risk Management Program? The weather. Social Media trends. Available resources. The stock market. The amount of available resources helps select programs. 767 / 1231 What is the first step in a Risk Management Program, regarding risk exposure? Ignoring loss. Accepting loss. Creating loss. Identify and analyze loss exposure. The first step is to identify and analyze risk exposure. 768 / 1231 How does the Risk Manager aid the board? By overseeing daily operational tasks. By ensuring all risks are eliminated. By providing oversight responsibilities. By managing staff scheduling and payroll. RM helps the boards by providing oversight responsibilities. 769 / 1231 What signifies the liability concern for board members as it relates to 'corporate' actions? Environmental pollution. Community service. Effective Time-Management Skills. Company retreats. Environmental pollution can create liability for board members. 770 / 1231 What is the meaning of 'duty of care'? Acting in good faith as a reasonable person. Withholding information for personal gain. Ignoring conflicts of interest. Prioritizing profit over patient safety. All people in a position of power must act reasonably, and in good faith. 771 / 1231 What is the legal duty for healthcare trustees? Approve legal payment requests. Approve marketing campaigns. Perform accounting duties. Set organization policy The legal duty of healthcare trustees is to set organizational policy. 772 / 1231 What is the main goal of including 'essential functions' in business continuity risks? Establishing Public Relations. Establishing marketing schemes. Restoring essential services. Securing Venture capital. Knowing essential functions maintains workflow. 773 / 1231 What is the primary focus of managing employee-related risks in healthcare? Safeguarding employee well-being and compliance. Minimizing marketing expenses. Ensuring customer satisfaction. Maximizing profitability through staff reductions. Employee-related risk involves safety, and wellbeing in the workplace. 774 / 1231 Which of the following exemplifies a risk associated with medical staff? Maintaining the physical security of the facility. Ensuring compliance with environmental regulations. Addressing issues related to credentialing and privileging. Managing employee retirement benefits. Credentialing and privileging are processes designed to ensure a medical professional is qualified. 775 / 1231 Which risk is an example of patient care-related risk? Property and assets of the company. Confidentiality and HIPAA. Compliance with OSHA guidelines. Workers compensation claims. Patient care related risks encompass all aspects of direct patient care. 776 / 1231 Which element falls under the scope of a Risk Management Program? Risks related to external political events only. Employee related risks Financial risks only Purely theoretical analysis of potential risks. The scope of an RM program includes risks related to employees. 777 / 1231 Which of the following is a key attribute of a successful Risk Management Program? Secrecy Autonomy Authority. Flexibility It is vital for a risk management program to have authority. 778 / 1231 What is the purpose of risk reduction strategies in a Risk Management Program? To eliminate all potential risks. To quantify the tolerance for risk. To shift the financial burden of risks to external insurance providers. To select and implement techniques that lower the likelihood or impact of risks. Risk reduction strategies help organizations proactively deal with threats by minimizing the damage. 779 / 1231 Which of the following can evaluate RM program effectiveness? Outcome measures only Financial measures only Performance activity, outcome, and financial measures Employee satisfaction surveys only Effectiveness needs to be measured using a few factors, including performance activity. 780 / 1231 Which activity is essential when managing risk within a healthcare organization? Delegating all risk management tasks to external consultants. Focusing exclusively on financial risks. Limiting communication to reduce unnecessary concerns. Training and supervising staff on risk management procedures. One major functional area of risk management is training and supervising staff. 781 / 1231 What is the primary reason for having accurate and comprehensive job descriptions for risk management staff? To justify the department's budget and resource allocation. To ensure clarity of roles and responsibilities within the department. To attract experienced candidates during recruitment. To comply with labor laws and regulations. Well-defined roles and responsibilities for each staff member ensure seamless and effective workflow in resolving crises and risks. 782 / 1231 Why is regularly updating a risk management plan important for healthcare organizations? To reduce the workload of the risk management staff. To comply with changing regulations and organizational needs. To avoid external audits and inspections. To minimize the need for employee training. Healthcare is a dynamic field, mandating frequent RMS reviews to ensure alignment with current guidelines and organizational changes. 783 / 1231 Why is organizational commitment and support essential for a Risk Management Program (RMP)? It guarantees compliance with regulatory requirements. It fosters a culture of safety and accountability. It simplifies the process of risk assessment. It ensures that the program is adequately funded. Organizational commitment is a cornerstone of RMP success, fostering a culture of safety and accountability. 784 / 1231 Which element is most indicative of enterprise risk management? Ignoring risks that are difficult to quantify. Focusing solely on financial risks to maximize profitability. Addressing risks in silos within each department. Managing risks holistically, considering all forms of risk. Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) considers all forms of risks across an organization, and manages them holistically. 785 / 1231 Which of the following best describes the role of a risk manager in healthcare operations? Directing marketing and public relations efforts. Overseeing human resources and employee relations. Identifying potential sources of loss faced by the organization. Managing patient billing and coding processes. Risk managers focus on identifying and mitigating potential risks to an organization. 786 / 1231 Match each type of Exposure of Healthcare Entities with a key aspect of loss mitigation Hospitals & Medical Centers = Stringent vetting of physician credentials and robust informed consent policies to mitigate liability from contracted services. Emergency Medical Services (EMS) = Training programs focusing on appropriate patient assessment and transfer protocols to prevent abandonment claims. Primary Care in Ambulatory Settings = Adherence to standard of care in diagnostic testing and adequate referral procedures to prevent claims. Managed Care Organizations (MCOs) = Implementation of clear and transparent policies regarding coverage decisions to mitigate bad faith lawsuits and protect public image Healthcare entities, owing to the complexities and risks inherent in the provision of patient care, can all see high numbers of claims. It is therefore key for each entity to mitigate potential routes to libility. 787 / 1231 Match the document type from the pre-trial procedures with the content that ought to be present: Summons = Notifies the defendant that a suit has been filed and compels them to appear in court. Complaint Petition = Clearly and concisely states the plaintiff's claims against the defendant. Interrogatories = Requires a party to answer specific written questions under oath. Depositions = Allows attorneys to examine witnesses under oath outside of the courtroom. The pre-trial procedure is the bedrock upon which the case is built, therefore each element is critical to the proceeding. 788 / 1231 Match each stage of litigation management with its primary objective: Selecting Defense Counsel = Ensuring the firm has expertise in the relevant area of medical law and a proven track record. Communicating with Defense Counsel = Providing timely and accurate information to build a strong legal strategy. Controlling Legal Fees = Regularly reviewing billing statements to ensure services are aligned with the strategic goals. Evaluating Defense Firm Performance = Assessing outcomes and attorney engagement to inform future decisions. Each step of the litigation mangement process must be optimized in order to ensure an appropriate outcome. 789 / 1231 Match the following elements to consider when selecting expert witnesses with their primary relevance to complex litigation management: Area of Expertise = Direct alignment with the specific medical issues and procedures in the case to establish or refute the standard of care. Communication Skills = Ability to clearly explain complex medical concepts to a jury in a way that is understandable and persuasive. Credibility and Reputation = Prior track record and standing within the medical community to bolster the expert's testimony. Availability and Compatibility = Willingness to dedicate sufficient time and resources to the case and work collaboratively with the legal team. Expert witnesses should be appropriately chosen as they can be pivotal in determining the success or failure of a case. 790 / 1231 Match each Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) method with its most defining characteristic: Mediation = A neutral third party helps the parties reach a mutually agreeable solution, but lacks the authority to impose a decision. Arbitration = A neutral third party hears evidence and renders a binding decision, akin to a judge in court. Negotiation = Parties directly communicate and attempt to settle their dispute without a third-party facilitator. Early Neutral Evaluation = A neutral expert provides a non-binding assessment of the case's strengths and weaknesses to facilitate settlement. The goal of ADR is to arrive at an acceptable settlement while minimizing expenses, thus minimizing the economic and brand impacts of litigation. 791 / 1231 Match the following 'Legal Theories' with their appropriate description: Respondeat Superior = An employer is responsible for the acts of its employees if they are committed within the scope of employment. Vicarious Liability = Imposition of liability on one person for another's actionable conduct, based solely on a relationship. Ostensible Agency = The appearance of an agency relationship where the patient reasonably believes the individual is an agent of the hospital. Corporate Negligence = A hospital is liable for its own negligence, such as failing to adequately vet physicians or maintain safe premises. Legal Theories are a framework by which potential liability and negligence can be assessed. 792 / 1231 Match the following 'Liability Areas' within Healthcare with a situation that would describe it: Hospitals & Medical Centers = Failure to adequately vet contracted physician services, leading to patient harm. Emergency Medical Services (EMS) = Abandonment of a patient in a remote location without arranging for alternative care. Primary Care in Ambulatory settings = Failure to obtain informed consent for a novel treatment with significant risks. Long-Term Care Facilities = Systematic neglect of residents leading to malnutrition and bedsores. Healthcare entities all have different areas of potential liability. Each entity must have a clear framework for the management and minimization of claims. 793 / 1231 Match the following elements of 'Due Diligence' regarding financial processes with their appropriate next step: Review of Legal Documents = To ensure the organization adheres to laws and regulations. Assess outstanding claims = Quantitatively assess claims, to accurately reserve funding. Review insurance and indemnification = To ensure correct management of liability. Review Patient Communication Practices = To assess compliance with legal and data privacy considerations. Performing 'Due Diligence' is key in the mitigation of current and potential claims. 794 / 1231 Match the following stages in the claims management process (as outlined in the 'new' model) with their correct description: Identification = Recognizing potential claims early through various reporting mechanisms. Investigation = Gathering factual information to determine the validity and scope of the claim. Analysis and Classification = Determining the relevant legal theories and categorizing the claim. Coverage Determination = Assessing whether the insurance policy covers the claim. The claims management process must be followed rigorously in order to optimise outcomes. Failure at any single stage can lead to an inadequate or incorrect outcome. 795 / 1231 Match the following elements of a claims management program with their appropriate description: Leadership Support = Ensures resources and commitment to the program's goals. Organizational Philosophy = Guides the culture and approach to handling claims. Infrastructure & Staffing = Provides the tools and personnel necessary for effective claims processing. Risk Financing Mechanism = Determines how claims will be funded (e.g., self-insured, commercial insurance). A well-structured claims management program is crucial for minimizing financial loss, informing risk mitigation, and protecting the organization's reputation. A mismatch in any of these areas can lead to unexpected costs or ineffective risk mitigation. 796 / 1231 Match the step with its description in defense firm performance: Select a defense firm = Selection based on expertise, availability, and caseload. Communication with defense counsel = Acknowledge receipt of tasks and work closely for investigations and depositions. Controlling legal fees = Risk manager oversight for billing billing rates. Evaluating defense firm performance = Compliance with agreements for responsiveness and cooperate; track record. Healthcare entities can control the costs of litigation with risk management and quality defense firms. 797 / 1231 Match the actions that a risk manager can take to mitigate the negative impact of litigation stress on health care professionals: Confidential Peer Support = Offering a confidential peer support resource for unanticipated outcomes. Wellness Plan = Developing a system-wide wellness plan to build resilience and address burnout. Defendents Support = Supporting insured defendants through all phases of the litigation process. Legal Counsel = Retain legal counsel who has experience with litigation cases. Healthcare litigation can be stressful for healthcare professionals, and understanding mitigation strategies is key. 798 / 1231 Match the type of liability exposure with the healthcare entity where it is most commonly seen: Hospitals & Medical Centers = Risk is increased by negligent failure to protect the privacy of patient data. Emergency Medical Services = Increased risk of liability due to claims of abandonment or failure to appropriately treat a medical condition. Integrated Delivery Systems = Physicians with hospital privileges are not considered to be employees. Managed Care Organizations = Responsibilities and accountabilities for cost containment that expose them to liability. Different healthcare entities have different liability exposures depending on the services they provide. 799 / 1231 Match the legal theory with its correct description in healthcare claims: Res Ipsa Loquitur = The injury would not have occurred absent negligence and the defendant had exclusive control of the instrumentality causing the injury. Literally, the thing speaks for itself. Vicarious Liability = Responsibility for the actions of another, often an employee, due to the relationship between the parties. Corporate Negligence = The entity failed to uphold the proper standard of care owed to the patient. Ostensible Agency = An organization might be held liable for the actions or inactions of an independent contractor. Legal theories are used to establish liability and determine the responsible party when a claim arises. 800 / 1231 Match the claims management process step with its description: Identification = Recognizing potential claims through incident reports and other means. Investigation = Gathering detailed information to understand the circumstances of the incident. Coverage Determination = Analyzing the policy to determine if the claim is covered. Resolution = Concluding the claims process through settlement, denial, or litigation. The claims management process is a systematic approach to handling claims from the initial report to final resolution. 801 / 1231 Match the following facts about a corporate to its impact. Facts = A patient isn't monitored and his sugar drops. Negligence Per Se = The employee disregarded Federal Laws and HIPAA. Res Ipsa Loquitur = Releasing personal information to a stranger. Medical battery = An ER dumps a patient for unknown reasons. Corporations should never be found disregarding and taking advantage of customers. Be vigilant in training employees and ensuring proper procedures is the number 1 goal. 802 / 1231 Match the following issues to a potential solution during a Due Diligence. Legal = Review past verdicts and ensure no criminal acitivity. Communication = Ask about expectations and where to improve. Policies = Ensure updated and appropriate procedures. Risk transfer mechanisms = Ensure employees are all on the same boat. Due Diligence helps provide proper framework for healthcare organizations to ensure proper protection and coverage of members. 803 / 1231 Match the following items of a healthcare service to its common problem. Hospitals & Medical Centers = Employees being negligent and failing to protect confidential patient data. Emergency Medical Centers = Abandonment issues. Primary care in ambulatory settings = A complete lack of negligence. Integrated delivery systems = Physicians may be UNEMPLOYED Physicians but have hospital privelages. Common mistakes or issues usually arise because of oversights. Ensure a double and even triple check exists to mitigate this. 804 / 1231 Match the following list to its potential action to mitigate stress on employees. Peer support resource = Ensure employees have the opportunity to ensure one another. Wellness Plan = Wellness that helps build resilience and battle burnout. Employee assistance program = Tools that help battle issues that employees face. Insured defendant support = Providing support and care through each part of litigation. Ensure that employee safety and proper risk reduction plans are taking place to assist employees. 805 / 1231 Match the phrase to its description for ADRs. More economical = Savings during claim from spending. Quicker = Faster than a normal trial. Less hostile = Less conflict between parties. Private = Not open to the public. ADRs can sometimes lead to a better and smoother process for both parties, as well as savings in time and money. 806 / 1231 Match the following elements of Claims File Management to its description: Correspondences = Important tracking notes from the file handler. Expenses = All loss adjustment costs. Legal papers = Important papers with interrogatories, depositions, or summons. Insurance coverage information = The details that ensure a policy and correspondence from insurers. Proper planning will ensure there are no lost or missing pieces during claims file management. 807 / 1231 Match each formal vs informal system to its description: Clain Data = Details on former complaints. Incident reporting = An employee writes up what happened. Security reports = What types of incidents were reported in a security event. Hotline calls = What callers are citing and if they are reoccuring. Differences in the system allow organizations to best tackle issues from multiple facets. 808 / 1231 Match each term to its corresponding description within coverage determination: Loss Covered = Determines if the insurer can reimburse. Cause of Loss Covered = Determines if intention was an action in the incident. Insured/Uninsured Parties = Helps see if insurer or outside source must provide damages. Geographical location = Ensures what geographical locations are accepted within the policy. Coverage determinations help lay out what actions are taken in different scenarios. 809 / 1231 Match the following phrases during litigation to its appropriate step in procedure. Pleadings = Documenting commands from the defendant. Response = Filing a defendant lawsuit. Discovery = Answering questions related to the discovery. Trial Procedure = Rules to conduct proceedings. Trial procedures are meant to ensure fairness and lawfulness in the court of law. 810 / 1231 Match the following terms liability determinations with its appropriate type. GL = General Liability. PL = Professional Liability. EPL = Employment Practices Liability. D&O = Directors & Officers. Liability determinations are put in place to protect directors, officers, and employees within healthcare organizations. 811 / 1231 Match the following terms related to reporting with the appropriate legal requirements. Lawsuit = A formal legal action filed at court. PCE = Any occurence which is expected to be filed, but hasn't yet. Claim = Formal notification that is found during the policy of a contract. Reporting = All complaints and possible events that should be reported to the insured and insurer. Reporting guidelines exist in professional industries to ensure any activity is dealt with to the fullest degree and due diligence is satisfied. 812 / 1231 Match the following document requirements to the document in a claim. Demand Letter = Formal request from the claimant asking for damages. Letter of Representation = Document from claimant's attorney stating they represent the claimant. Preservation Notice = Document instructing that data not be destroyed because of a claim. Insurance Coverage contract = The conditions where an insurer has a responisbility to pay. Accurate record-keeping and adherence to established policies ensure fair risk mitigation in the event of an incident. 813 / 1231 Match the legal theory with its definition: Res Ipsa Loquitur = The thing speaks for itself; negligence is presumed. Vicarious Liability = Responsibility for the torts of another, even if not directly at fault. Corporate Negligence = Failure of a corporation to uphold a duty of care owed to patients. Apparent Agency = An organization is held responsible for the actions of someone not its employee. Legal theories help determine who is liable when something goes wrong during healthcare delivery. 814 / 1231 Match the type of healthcare entity with its common liability exposure: Hospitals = Negligent credentialing of physicians. Emergency medical services = Abandonment of a patient. Ambulatory settings = Failure to obtain informed consent. Long-term care facilities = Patient abuse or neglect. Different types of healthcare entities have unique liability exposures based on the services they provide and the populations they serve. 815 / 1231 Match the following steps for claims management in the correct order. Identification = First step in recognizing a potential claim. Investigation = Gathering information and evidence related to the claim. Resolution = Final step involving settlement, denial or litigation outcome. Analysis and Classification = Categorizing the nature and cause of the claim. Claims management follows a structured process to ensure each claim is handled appropriately and efficiently from start to finish. 816 / 1231 The risk of the professional is required to retain a legal counsel is there is a claim made policy in place. True False The risk professional is to notify a carrier if there is a claim made policy in place. 817 / 1231 Providing support through all phases of the litigation process *will not* mitigate negative effects, such as stress. True False Providing support during litigation benefits health care providers and is an example of mitigating stress. 818 / 1231 A notification of claims is when an ER physician dumps a patient. True False A notification of claims is the moment to report neglect and abandonment. 819 / 1231 The only advantage over a trial is the negotiation of the third party. True False Negotiation includes three advantages over trial: economical, quicker, and less hostile. 820 / 1231 A *speedy driver* hits a child while driving *without* headlights is a form of *Res Ispa Loquitur*. True False A *speedy driver* hits a child while driving *without* headlights is a form of *Negligence Per Se*. 821 / 1231 Insurance coverage information, as part of claim file management, is not relevant to insurers. True False Both the policy *and* corresponding insurers will require the coverage information. 822 / 1231 Due diligence in litigation solely involves assessing the legal aspects of an organization. True False Due diligence includes assessing the legal _and_ financial review. 823 / 1231 In claims management, a Demurrer motion is when the plaintiff requests to admit allegations of the defendant. True False In claims management, a Demurrer motion is when the *defendant* requests to admit allegations of the *plaintiff* and request their dismissal. 824 / 1231 In an Emergency Medical Service, false imprisonment includes restraining someone. True False False imprisonment can include restraining someone without consent. 825 / 1231 In a case of apparent agency, privileges for physicians are NOT considered to be an independent contractor True False Physicians with hospital privileges are considered to be independent contractors. 826 / 1231 A hospital cannot be sued for corporate negligence. True False A hospital can be sued for corporate negligence related to known defects, patient injury, and resource allocation. 827 / 1231 The insurer and the insured have the same responsibilities when handling lawsuits. True False Insurers and the insured have separate responsibilities when handling lawsuits. The insurance company has its own responsibilities, and the insured has their own. 828 / 1231 Taxonomy is *not* relevant for benchmarking and loss runs. True False Taxonomy *is* relevant and should be in place for benchmarking and loss runs. 829 / 1231 The *Respondeat Superior* doctrine solely applies to intentional torts committed by employees. True False The *Respondeat Superior* doctrine extends an employer's liability to negligent as well as intentional acts committed by their employees within the scope of employment. 830 / 1231 A claim is best managed when reserves are set after sufficient data have been obtained. True False Setting reserves requires sufficient, accurate data so an appropriate amount can be reserved. 831 / 1231 In *Res Ipsa Loquitur*, the injured person can't sue the employer for the full amount. True False Negligence means an injured person _can_ sue the employer for the full amount. 832 / 1231 Liability determination aims to identify the responsible party, regardless of liability type. True False Liability determination identifies the *type* of liability at hand: general, professional, or employment practices. 833 / 1231 'Loss Covered' refers to whether the cause of the incident is covered by the policy. True False 'Loss Covered' refers to whether the cause of the incident (e.g., negligence or intentional act) falls under the scope of events covered by the insurance policy. 834 / 1231 General liability covers professional malpractice. True False General liability and professional liability are distinct. General liability protects against incidents like slips and falls, while professional liability covers negligence in professional services. 835 / 1231 The insurer always waives its rights while a claim is being investigated and defended. True False The insurer ***does not*** waive its rights while a claim is investigated and defended. 836 / 1231 Under the principle of *Res Ipsa Loquitur*, the burden of proof shifts to the defendant. True False In cases where _Res Ipsa Loquitur_ applies ('the thing speaks for itself'), it's understood that the incident wouldn't have happened unless someone was negligent, shifting the onus to the defendant to prove otherwise. 837 / 1231 A 'Lawsuit' refers to informal settlement discussions outside of court. True False A 'Lawsuit' is a formal legal action that is filed in court. 838 / 1231 Analysis and classification of a claim involves using subjective opinions. True False Analysis and classification of a claim involves using facts and objective criteria, not subjective opinions. 839 / 1231 A document checklist is not necessary when managing claims. True False A document checklist is a key element in claims management, used to verify that all necessary data has been collected. 840 / 1231 The risk manager's role in claims is solely based on the organization's financial data. True False The risk manager's role is based on the nature of the organization and its insurance program. 841 / 1231 In claims management, 'Identification' is the final step in the process. True False 'Identification' is the first step in the claims management process, followed by investigation, analysis, and resolution. 842 / 1231 The claims management program must have commercial insurance coverage. True False A claims management program can be designed around self-insured or commercially insured scenarios. 843 / 1231 A claim is a formal notification seeking monetary damages for an alleged injury. True False A claim indeed represents a formal notification where monetary compensation is pursued for a claimed injury. 844 / 1231 If HIPAA applies, compliance with medical records may proceed regardless of the circumstances. True False While records are commonly needed in modern record release, the patient needs to always be notified regarding the opportunity. 845 / 1231 In corporate liabilities , it is most reasonable to hire an orthopedic surgeon to explain to the lawyer involving breast care cancer. True False It is more common practice to hire specific personal that are closely related to their expert testimony. 846 / 1231 In the event that there is a subpoena, a lawyer knows the most so it should be directly passed with the lawyer rather than any action happening. True False If there is a subpoena, a lawyer knows the most so it should be directly passed with the lawyer rather than any action happening. 847 / 1231 A hospital is responsible even though they were not involved if the lawsuit involves a contracted doctor instead of employed. True False Hospitals are sometimes liable through implied duties depending if the contact is employed or not. Also are based on if they were involved or not. 848 / 1231 In the list of "four Ds, the damage death for an employee is the 'duty' phase. True False Four Ds are: duty, duty breaching, direct injury, damage. The damage death for an employee is the damage phase. 849 / 1231 An 'unstructured process' in third party dispute resolution means that nobody is authorized to create documents. True False Unstructured is about making sure both parties are involved in negotiations, not just one. 850 / 1231 If there is an unintended surgical item in a patient, strict liability is automatically the result. True False Unintended surgical lawsuits are res ipsa loquitur given that negligence is clearly caused. 851 / 1231 If a healthcare enterprise receives a written demand for compensation, a risk professional needs to first analyze the situation. True False Risk management team always needs to start with carrier first and then analyze. 852 / 1231 Integrated Delivery Systems (IDS) can cannot be held vicariously liable by anyone outside of contracts. True False If a provider is hired as an independent contractor ,the employee cannot sue the hospital. 853 / 1231 If a provider is employed at a hospital, a patient and their family is authorized to sue a hospital even if they were not involved in the claim. True False If a provider is hired as an independent contractor ,the employee cannot sue the hospital. 854 / 1231 The *only* role of a risk manager regarding outside counsel is ensuring the firm bills hourly and at or below an expected amount True False While risk managers need to manage cost, they need to confirm and assist with the appropriate paperwork and steps taken. 855 / 1231 In any medical setting, a claim that results in a case will require a 'pre trial' procedure. True False Pre-trial procedures are legal precedents to any court order. 856 / 1231 It is not required to clarify reporting PCEs. True False It is require to report PCEs to clarify the requirements. 857 / 1231 The *only* essential element in assessing corporate negligence is determining whether the health facility was aware of similar past incidents True False While a history of incidents would be helpful to the claim, the plaintiff still need some other evidence. 858 / 1231 A self-insured risk manager has major responsibility for their case. True False A self insured risk manager always must be responsible for their own cases. 859 / 1231 In investigation outside or outside, there is a need to get a written description of hippa in medical investigations. True False In investigation there is a need to get a written description of hippa to keep confidentiality. 860 / 1231 The final step in a lawsuit is always an agreed upon settlement. True False A case needs to be negotiated whether it is settled or not. 861 / 1231 In the context of legal theories, 'strict liability' is typically the most relevant theory for cases involving retained surgical sponges. True False Res ipsa loquitur applies when an injury wouldn't have occurred if someone wasn't negligent. 862 / 1231 A claims-made insurance policy is triggered by an occurrence during the policy period. True False A claims-made policy requires that both the incident and the claim occur during the active policy period for coverage to apply. 863 / 1231 A hospital following defense counsel does not need to select experts witnesses for medical negligence True False A hospital needs to select experts witnesses in order improve their expert testimony. 864 / 1231 The goal of due diligence is to complete legal and financial review of an organization. True False The true goal is to complete legal and financial review of all organizations. 865 / 1231 In claim management, healthcare entities face limited exposures, mainly related to medical malpractice. True False Entities may face wide exposures such as hospitals, medical, or long term care malpractice. 866 / 1231 Corporation negligences cannot impact medical malpractice lawsuits. True False Corporation negligences can also weigh in on medical malpractice suits depending on if the health facility knew of a defect. 867 / 1231 There is no difference between ostensible and apparent agency in a healthcare setting. True False Under the doctrine of 'Respondeat Superior', an employer _can_ be held responsible for the actions of employees within the scope of their employment. 868 / 1231 Internal investigations are an optional part of most claims resolutions. True False Internal investigations are crucial with collecting facts. 869 / 1231 'Vicarious liability' means imposing the same liability the employee has to another person. True False Vicarious liability means imposing liability on one person for the actionable conduct of another, based solely on a relationship between the two persons. 870 / 1231 'Respondeat Superior' means an employer is never responsible for the acts of their employees. True False Under the doctrine of 'Respondeat Superior', an employer _can_ be held responsible for the actions of employees within the scope of their employment. 871 / 1231 Claim file management involves the logical ordering and maintaining of all documents related to a claim. True False Effective file management ensures that all crucial documents are organized in a manner facilitating easy access and reference. 872 / 1231 After a claim, setting reserves involves identifying the claimant's attorney. True False Setting reserves are a tool to estimate liabilities for the claim. 873 / 1231 A goal of claim management is reducing negative impacts on a hospital's image. True False By being proactive at reducing risks a hospital will also reduce negative media coverage. 874 / 1231 Internal investigations are optional in claims handling. False True Internal investigations are very important to collect and maintain factual information. 875 / 1231 An insurance policy has no impact on the claims management process. True False Insurance policies dictate important parameters of claims, such as the extent of coverage and insurer responsibilities. 876 / 1231 A systematic approach to claim management aims to increase the financial loss for a healthcare organization. True False Claim management actually aims to *decrease* financial loss and prevent a negative image. 877 / 1231 A claim management program's success relies solely on the efficiency of its technology. True False A successful program relies on leadership, culture, infrastructure, and other factors in addition to technology. 878 / 1231 A 'claim' is a formal demand for monetary damages due to an alleged injury. True False A claim is indeed a formal notification seeking monetary compensation for a perceived injury or loss. 879 / 1231 A risk manager's role is the same across different organizations, regardless of their insurance program. True False A risk manager's role depends on the organization's nature and insurance program, influencing the extent of their involvement. 880 / 1231 The 'identification' step in claims management involves assessing coverage and setting reserves. True False The identification phase is about recognizing a potential claim, whereas assessing coverage and setting reserves occur later in the process. 881 / 1231 In a commercial insurance coverage, the facility always bears the responsibility for covering losses. True False In commercial insurance coverage, the insurer typically assumes the responsibility for covering losses, as outlined in the insurance policy. 882 / 1231 The claims management process begins when an event occurs and concludes with the resolution of the claim. True False The claims management process encompasses all stages, from the initial incident to its final resolution. 883 / 1231 A claim always involves a formal lawsuit filed in court. True False A claim can be a precursor to a lawsuit, but it doesn't necessarily involve legal action. It starts with a notification that damages are being sought. 884 / 1231 You are helping the defense council select an expert witness in a case regarding alleged breast cancer misdiagnosis. What would it be the **ABSOLUTE BEST** action? Retain outside oncologist. Call an expert friend. Ask the hospital administrator. Do depositions yourself. Retaining an outside person would add weight to your side of the defense. 885 / 1231 To have the most effective claims management and to review claims and potentially prevent them, what do many organizations rely on? They do not rely on anything. Reports from upset patients. Formal Risk Data Sentinel Analysis Formal risk data is crucial and it offers the best option to collect information by the enterprise. 886 / 1231 What is a subtle way that hospitals can be corporate negligent when thinking about staff physicians who lose staff privileges due to alcohol impairment? Allow them to come back to work right away. They should NOT report to the state licensing boards. Make sure they have all the prescription drugs they need. They should retain them. It can be proved for a hospital to be corporate negligent if they fail to properly manage staff behavior or competence. 887 / 1231 Considering that a systematic evaluation of a claim is essential, what's an intended outcome a healthcare organization should look for in a claims management program? To ensure consistency in settlement amounts for similar claims across different departments. To reduce the financial loss and any reputational damage linked to a claim. To minimize legal costs irrespective of the overall financial impact. To lower the community image of a HCO. The ultimate goal of a proper claim management system to mitigate loses from payment, plus keep the reputation in good standing. 888 / 1231 During claim investigation, what is the MOST crucial consideration when using outside investigators, particularly with regards to potentially discoverable information? The investigators' prior experience in similar cases and reputation for thoroughness. The investigators' billing rates and overall cost-effectiveness. The investigators' adherence to a confidentiality agreement compliant with HIPAA regulations and state-specific privacy laws. The investigators' ability to produce a rapid preliminary assessment to inform initial claims decisions. Outside entities need to adhere to confidentiality and HIPAA regulations. 889 / 1231 What factor most influences the extent to which a risk manager is involved in the actual claims management process? The prevailing legal climate and the propensity for litigation in the region. The risk manager's professional certification and credentials. Whether or not the organization is commercially insured or has high retention, versus self-insured for its risk exposure. The size and complexity of the healthcare organization. Self-insured organizations rely on their risk managers to take a heavier role in claim management. 890 / 1231 A surgery resident accidentally cuts the common bile duct during a laparoscopic procedure, which was the third such incident in the last six months at the facility. What organizational failures would MOST likely be considered when litigating **corporate negligence**? The hospital's decision to use laparoscopic techniques, a less invasive surgical procedure. The systemic failure to provide adequate supervision during and training in laparoscopic procedures, highlighting a systemic disregard for patient safety. The informed consent procedure, which must disclose the risks involved in laparoscopic surgery. The individual surgeon's skill and technique, as this is a professional liability consideration. The organization displayed a disregard for patient safety due to the repeated nature of the accident. 891 / 1231 In the context of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR), what aspect of arbitration poses the MOST significant challenge for healthcare providers concerned with maintaining Standard of Care (SOC)? The relative inflexibility of arbitrator decisions as binding and non-appealable. The reduced evidentiary standards and relaxed discovery processes. The limited scope for judicial review of arbitrator decisions, even in cases of demonstrable error. The increased likelihood of settlement due to arbitrator expertise. There may not be a way to ensure SOC if the arbitration decision has an demonstrable decision. 892 / 1231 A hospital's security system malfunctions, resulting in unauthorized access to employee files, including sensitive medical information. Which of the following legal theories would be the **MOST directly relevant**? Corporate Negligence, specifically the failure to adequately protect confidential data. Breach of Contract, focusing on the implied contract of privacy with its employees. Respondeat Superior, for the actions of employees who failed to maintain system integrity. Ostensible Agency, attributing liability based on perceived security measures. Corporate Negligence is most relevant due to the security malfunction attributed to poor security that should have been maintained by the company. 893 / 1231 In a claims-made policy, what constitutes the MOST critical action for a healthcare facility upon receiving a demand letter, considering the potential implications for coverage? Contacting the involved patient to initiate mediation and potentially resolve the issue before it escalates. Immediately notifying the insurance carrier, in strict accordance with the policy's reporting requirements. Launching an internal root cause analysis to determine the source of the claim. Engaging legal counsel to assess the validity of the demand letter and explore possible defense strategies. A claims-made policy has specific reporting requirements to trigger coverage. 894 / 1231 As an enterprise risk professional, you are tasked to assess the quality of external legal counsel during the litigation management process. Which metric offers the MOST insightful assessment of their efficacy beyond readily available litigation outcomes? The total number of billable hours logged per case, providing an indication of their dedication. The firm's win-loss ratio in similar cases, presenting a benchmark for anticipated success. The frequency and detail of their communication regarding case strategy, revealing both transparency and thoroughness. The firm's adherence to agreed-upon litigation budgets, demonstrating fiscal responsibility and budgetary discipline. It is not enough to win or lose the case. Legal counsel must keep their client informed about the strategy and how they plan to approach fighting the claim. 895 / 1231 An organization's risk manager observes a pattern of Emergency Medical Services (EMS) personnel deviating from established protocols due to resource constraints. A patient subsequently experiences harm. What is the MOST relevant legal theory? Res Ipsa Loquitur applies unequivocally, as the injury would not have occurred in the absence of negligence. Corporate negligence is implicated if the organization knowingly under-resourced the EMS, facilitating foreseeable deviations from protocol. Negligence Per Se is triggered due to the breach of established medical protocols. Vicarious liability is the primary theory, hinging on the actions of the EMS personnel acted outside the proper Standard of Care (SOC). If an organization knowingly under-resourced the entities involved, they failed to implement measures toward safety and protocol. 896 / 1231 During the litigation process, plaintiffs' legal counsel requests the metadata associated with changes made to an electronic health record (EHR) after a Potential Compensable Event (PCE). The defense argues that the metadata is not subject to discovery due to privilege. Under what legal rationale would the defense prevail? EHR metadata is considered proprietary information and not subject to discovery. The metadata lacks relevance to the claim and constitutes an undue burden on the healthcare organization. The metadata represents attorney work product if the EHR changes were directed or anticipated by legal counsel. The metadata is protected under HIPAA regulations, shielding patient information from unauthorized disclosure. Attorney work product related to EHR is typically protected from discovery. 897 / 1231 A self-insured healthcare organization discovers a historical pattern of inadequate peer review processes stemming from poor taxonomy application, leading to delayed identification of systemic risks. How would a defense attorney leverage this discovery in a subsequent claim? Assert the discovery as a demonstration of the organization's proactive risk management efforts, irrespective of past inadequacies. Invoke 'ostensible agency,' contending that the actions of individual practitioners should not reflect on the organization's overall risk profile. Substantiate 'corporate negligence' by illustrating a longstanding systemic failure to apply best practices in risk identification and mitigation. Argue that the organization's self-insured status implies a higher degree of internal accountability, negating the claim's validity. A historical pattern of inadequate peer review indicates corporate negligence. 898 / 1231 In the event that a healthcare entity's actions result in the misinterpretation of diagnostic imaging, leading to delayed treatment and subsequent harm, which legal theory would MOST likely be central to the ensuing claim? Corporate negligence, focusing on the failure to maintain adequate protocols for image interpretation and communication. Ostensible agency, if the radiologist was perceived by the patient as an agent of the healthcare entity, regardless of their actual employment status. Negligence per se, contingent upon the violation of a specific regulatory statute directly related to diagnostic imaging standards. Vicarious liability, predicated on the actions of employed radiologists whose interpretations fell below the acceptable Standard of Care (SOC) Corporate negligence is relevant when a healthcare facility fails to uphold established protocols, contributing to a misdiagnosis. 899 / 1231 Which Healthcare Providers should an expert expect to treat carefully through contracting? Each are required to be reviewed. Medical Centers. Home Health. Hospitals. Each of the Health Care Providers should be reviewed and have the necessary precautions. 900 / 1231 Within ADR (Alternative Dispute Resolution) what is something you would NOT consider? More economical. Quicker. More private. Hostile. Within ADR, you would NOT describe ADRs as 'Hostile'. 901 / 1231 During the lawsuit process, match the correct order of events. Complaint, Summons, Answer. Complaint, Motion, Judgement. Summons, Complaint, Answer. Answer, Judgement, Summons. First is the Complaint, then Summons and after that it is Answer. 902 / 1231 If a lawsuit occurs, which Due Diligence option might prevent a legal issue from re-occuring? Patient communication. Financial review. Risk transfer mechanisms. Policies & Procedures. Policies and Procedures are an essential part to Due Diligence and ensuring safety for the future. 903 / 1231 What would be NOT expected when thinking about EMS (Emergency Medical Services)? The patient is restrained for acting out. Abandonment. Informed Consent. Assault and Battery. Informed Consent is not available if there is an emergency or the patient is incapacitated. 904 / 1231 Why does Healthcare fail to report impairment to state licensing boards? Because it would lead to legal liability. Lack of action. Leads to further harm to patient. Lack of expert opinion. Not reporting the provider will in turn potentially cause the provider to further injure another patient. 905 / 1231 Which of the following is the LEAST accurate statement regarding legal theories? The master is liable to the servant Res Ipsa Loquitur describes breaching 'the thing that speaks for itself'. Negligence Per Se describes acting outside of what the statue says The servant is NOT liable. The 'thing' or 'employee' is also liable for their actions. 906 / 1231 During the 'analysis and classification' phase of claims management, what would indicate the strongest and most suitable methodology for determining the claim? Considering documentation, relevant internal/external factors, and taxonomy. Relying solely on documented facts. Following taxonomy that aligns with risk financing mechanisms. Utilizing a committee that meets regularly. Analysis and Classification in Claims Management is optimized when considering documentation, internal & external factors and Taxonomy. 907 / 1231 In the setting of claim file management, what is the correct order when arranging documents? Investigation reports, correspondence, medical records, legal papers. Correspondence, investigation reports, legal papers, medical records. Legal papers, medical records, investigation reports, correspondence. Correspondence, medical records, investigation reports, legal papers. In Claim File Management, an appropriate way to maintain order is as follows: correspondence, medical records, investigation reports, legal papers. 908 / 1231 What is the most accurate interpretation of insurer's 'duty to defend' in the context of claim management and litigation? The insurer must provide a legal defense against any claim or suit arising from bodily injury or property damage. The insurer only covers court fees. The insurer is obligated to settle the claim, regardless of its validity. The insurer is obligated to investigate the incident thoroughly. The 'duty to defend' compels an insurer to provide a legal defense for a claim, irrespective of its actual merit as long as the claim may result in damages payable under policy. 909 / 1231 During claim file management, what is the primary rationale for meticulously organizing documentation in a logical order? To prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information. To comply with record retention regulations. To facilitate efficient reference, tracking, and analysis of the claim. To minimize storage space requirements. The logical ordering of documents in claims file management is geared toward ease of reference, tracking, and detailed analysis. 910 / 1231 What's the primary role of insurance coverage information within a claim file? Negotiating settlements with claimants. Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements. Confirming applicable coverage and corresponding correspondences from the insurer. Supporting subrogation efforts. Including insurance coverage details in a Claim File primarily ensures that any applicable coverage is known and to also retain any correspondence to/from the insurer. 911 / 1231 Which statement best encapsulates the relationship between ‘benchmarking’ and claim taxonomy? Benchmarking is used to develop the structure of the claim taxonomy. Both must be performed by an outside party for objectivity. Taxonomy assists in categorizing claims data to allow for benchmarking against other organizations. Benchmarking and taxonomy are unrelated processes in claims management. Claim taxonomy is the classifying of claims which can then be used for benchmarking- comparing data against other similar organizations. 912 / 1231 In the context of legal claims, how does 'ostensible agency' most directly impact a healthcare facility? It transfers liability to the independent contractor’s insurance policy. It holds the facility liable for the actions of independent contractors if it appeared they were acting on behalf of the facility. It completely shields the facility from liability for the actions of independent contractors. It requires patients to sign a waiver acknowledging the independent contractor status of providers. 'Ostensible agency' can create liability for a healthcare facility when a patient reasonably believes that an independent contractor is an employee of the facility. 913 / 1231 In what scenario would the 'corporate negligence' legal theory be most applicable? A hospital's failure to adequately vet and credential a physician, leading to patient harm. A surgeon's error during a routine procedure. A nurse administering the wrong medication due to fatigue. A patient slipping and falling on a wet floor in the hospital lobby. 'Corporate negligence' addresses the healthcare organization's direct responsibility for failing to uphold a reasonable standard of care through proper policies, procedures, and oversight, such as negligent credentialing. 914 / 1231 What is the most critical element in ensuring an effective claims investigation when using outside investigators? Limiting communication to maintain objectivity. Minimizing costs by selecting the lowest bidder. Granting full autonomy to expedite the investigation. Establishing a confidentiality agreement compliant with HIPAA regulations. HIPAA compliance is paramount to protect patient privacy and avoid legal repercussions, making a confidentiality agreement a must. 915 / 1231 Which of the following actions would be most effective in supporting healthcare staff during a high-anxiety claim event? Providing open communication, resources, and support to address their concerns. Delegating responsibility to external legal counsel to minimize internal disruption. Implementing strict disciplinary measures to ensure compliance. Withholding information to prevent further anxiety and speculation. Providing support and resources helps staff cope with the anxiety, fostering a more resilient and cooperative environment during claims management. 916 / 1231 How would a risk manager's role differ between a self-insured healthcare organization and one that is commercially insured? Self-insured organizations do not require risk managers, as the organization bears all the risk. The risk manager's role is identical in both scenarios, focusing solely on data analysis. In a self-insured organization, the risk manager is limited to monitoring, while commercially insured allows for active participation. In a self-insured organization, the risk manager actively participates in managing claims, while in a commercially insured one, the role is limited to monitoring. In a self-insured setting, the risk manager takes a 'hands-on' approach, actively managing claims. In a commercially insured setting, their role is more observational. 917 / 1231 What distinguishes a 'claim' from a 'potentially compensable event (PCE)' in healthcare risk management? A claim is a formal notification that monetary damages are sought, while a PCE may not yet involve a formal request for damages. A claim is resolved through Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR), while a PCE proceeds to litigation. A claim is covered by insurance, while a PCE is not. A claim involves only non-monetary damages, while a PCE involves monetary damages. A claim is a formal notification that monetary damages are being sought, whereas a PCE is an event that could lead to a claim but hasn't yet resulted in a formal demand for compensation. 918 / 1231 What would define: document reciting all the allegations against defendant? Complaint of petition. Expert witness. Witness Medical License. It is the first document as part of a process! 919 / 1231 In the lawsuit process, several things must occur. Which answer has the correct procedures (3)? Bailiff, Trial, Verdict. Court, Jury & Appeal Defense counsel, Expert witnesses, Exhibits. Pleadings, Trials, Post-trial. Pleading, trial & post-trial are essential in any legal procedure. 920 / 1231 Many processes or stages will assist in claims management. Which of the following statements aligns to such? There are 10 stages. There are 1000 stages. There are 2 stages. There are no stages at all! The stages are: Identification, Investigation, document, classification, reporting, coverage, setting reserves, strategies, resolution. 921 / 1231 Which statement accurately highlights the roles/responsibilities of healthcare facilities in medical malpractice claims? Healthcare facilities have a responsibility to be forthcoming on coverage. Healthcare facilities *always* are responsible for the actions of doctors. Healthcare facilities have the *ultimate* say in settlements, regardless of insurer input. Healthcare facilities cannot retain outside representation if their insurers represent them. Clarifying requirements for reporting, lawsuits and claims is very important. 922 / 1231 To completely stop losses when thinking about Due Diligence, what are the major components? Medical equipment, physician selection, competitive pricing & risk management. It does not exist. Due diligence, patient communication, Policies-Procedures & risk transfer mechanisms. Due diligence, Patient satisfaction, Insurance costs, Risk avoidance. These items make for a better operation of your organization. 923 / 1231 Which outside specialist would you retain given a lawsuit for breast cancer? Oncologist Family Practice This person lives in this simulation. Reconstruction surgeon Due to it concerning a breast cancer negligence, the best professional would be the oncologist. 924 / 1231 What is the **BEST** reaction when a medical staff reports they accidentally saw the name of a famous celebrity? Offer that staff member some time off so they are in tip top shape. Notify the patient regarding the subpoena for an opportunity to object. You should terminate them immediately. Immediately start calling all your aquaintances. A subpoena will always give an individual an opportunity to object, so be sure to notify them. 925 / 1231 What is the proper legal theory to use when hospitals are accused of negligence in retaining surgical sponges? The legal doctrine of sponges. Legal malpractice. Negligence per se. Res Ipsa Loquitur Res Ipsa is when “the thing speaks for itself." 926 / 1231 When a healthcare facilities has been served with a demand, who is the FIRST to notify? The doctor. Notify the insurer. Throw out the document. Contact the patient. In these situations, it is very important to work with the insurers. 927 / 1231 What action can and should an enterprise risk professional do in reaction to their company suffering litigation? Offer a confidential peer support resource for unanticipated outcomes. Offer only the bare minimum. It's the end of the world. Contact every employee so they watch what they say. Providing support to not feel stress helps boost employee morale, reduce further litigation. 928 / 1231 When organizations assess acquisitions in healthcare, what is one of key factors? Failure to exercise due diligence in overseeing the affairs of the organization before aquiring. The average age of the employees. Breach of contract. The amount spent on insurance. It is always important to make a great assessment. 929 / 1231 If a doctor who is not directly employed seems to work for a hospital, they may be considered what? An ostensible agent. Not dangerous at all. Willing in taking difficult cases. Practicing medicine outside of their medical license. An ostensible agent is when there is an independent contractor. 930 / 1231 Which of the following examples would be best described as 'Negligence Per Se'? A physician injuring a patient while practicing without a current medical license. This person does not exist. A physician dumping a patient. A doctor performing surgery without gloves on. When people are not following rules due to medical liscenses, that is when negligennce per se is the best. 931 / 1231 How hospitals not reporting physician impairment to state licensing boards could lead to what? Res Ipsa Loquitur Corporate Negligence Physician abandonment of duties Ostensible Agency Healthcare facilities must take care in who they employ and the allocation of resources, negligent selection can be the ultimate decider here. 932 / 1231 In states where hospitals employ physicians, which legal doctrine could apply? Quasi Estoppel Respondeat Superior Assumed Risk Res Ipsa Loquitur Respondeat Superior applied because hospitals are responsible for the actions of their employees. 933 / 1231 What is the primary difference between 'Res Ipsa Loquitur' and 'Negligence per se'? Res Ipsa is much worse. They are exactly the same. Negligence per se exists when somebody speeds through a stop sign, whereas res ipsa loquitur is when an object is retained. Their primary legal difference is that negligent parties must seek professional guidance when res ipsa loquitur is the primary defense. Res ipsa is when 'the thing speaks for itself', whereas negligence per se involves a violation. 934 / 1231 In General Liability, what does 'Slander' refer to? Injuring someone on purpose. Malpractice. A fall due to somebody elses wet floor. Verbal remarks which are injuring somebody. Slander is different than libel which is written. 935 / 1231 According to insurers, what action may they take to validate accuracy of the claim? Publicly disclose claim details to deter fraud. Automatically deny all claims until proven valid. Demand the insured party undergo a polygraph exam. They may audit for validate accuracy and completeness. Insurers commonly audit claims to ensure that there are no errors or missing information. 936 / 1231 What is the role of 'indemnity' in 'reserving'? The judgment (indemnity reserve) and providing for a defense and to pay for other allocated expenses related to managing a claim. Something something dark side. It has been found to be a liability for the insurer. Indemnity is unrelated to the value of a claim. When you calculate the reserve needed, the Indemnity Reserve + Expense Reserve = required reserve. 937 / 1231 What is included in Claim File Management? Stored off-site, no need to keep everything at your fingertips. All documents in logical order for reference and tracking. The only records needed are legal papers and documents. Organized in any order deemed necessary. Keeping things orderly helps. 938 / 1231 During claims management, what does the ‘analysis and classification’ step primarily involve? Approving payment to claimants immediately to avoid lawsuits. Dismissing claims based on initial impressions. Analyzing the claim through the risk committee using facts, and considering internal and external influencing factors. Delegating all decisions to external legal counsel. This step requires a careful review and categorization to decide if an organization is liable. 939 / 1231 In healthcare claims, what does the term ‘PCE’ refer to? Post-Claim Expense Potential Compensable Event Pre-emptive Cost Estimate Patient Care Event A PCE is any occurrence that may lead to a future claim or lawsuit. 940 / 1231 Which of the following is the **LEAST** important factor to consider during claim investigation? Whether the insured RM will have major responsibility. Whether the claim is commercially insured and RM should direct and maintain control. The potential for negative publicity. Collecting factual information. While an important consideration overall, it is less important than direct factual findings or level of control of the insurer themselves. 941 / 1231 What is the purpose of a documentation checklist in the claims management process? To delay the claims process for financial gain. To assign blame to specific individuals or departments. To intimidate potential claimants. To ensure all necessary information is gathered and organized. Thorough documentation is essential for accurate analysis and effective claims handling. 942 / 1231 In claims management, what does ‘taxonomy’ aid in? Selecting outside legal counsel Negotiating settlements with claimants Complying with federal regulations Benchmarking and loss runs Taxonomy helps organize and classify data for analytical purposes. 943 / 1231 Which is NOT a formal document typically produced during initial claims documentation? Letter of representation Preservation notice Social Media Post Demand letter The letter of representation, demand letter, and preservation notice offer proper documentation. 944 / 1231 What is an example of an **informal** risk identification system? Security Reports Claims data Sentinel event tracking RCA & FMEA Formal systems are thoroughly documented and structured, while informal options stem from other systems. 945 / 1231 When using outside investigators during the investigation phase, what is extremely crucial? Limiting their access to only publicly available information. Avoiding any written contracts to maintain flexibility. Verifying they have a confidentiality agreement in compliance with HIPAA law. Ensuring they are the lowest bidder regardless of compliance. Compliance with HIPAA is paramount when sharing patient information with outside parties. 946 / 1231 What is the intended outcome of a systematic approach to claims management? Shift responsibility to external legal counsel completely. Expedite the legal process, regardless of cost. Reduce financial loss and negative community image for a HCO. Increase the number of claims filed to maximize coverage. Effective claims management aims to minimize negative impacts on both finances and reputation. 947 / 1231 What constitutes a **formal** claim? A social media post complaining about services received. An informal discussion about a perceived wrong. A formal notification that monetary damages are being sought for an alleged injury. The opening of an internal investigation following an incident. It's important to check the definition in your insurance policy. 948 / 1231 During Trial, there has been an incident in which the jury acted inappropriately. What do you do? What do you dooo? Continue forward and assume the best Address the jury's actions delicately Impeach the jury Seek mistrial immediately During Trial if there has been some wrong action by a jury that may affect their impartiality, mistrial must almost always be sought. 949 / 1231 What is the key factor that determines a risk manager's role in claims management? The number of beds in the healthcare facility. The nature of the organization and its insurance program. The size of the legal department. The risk manager's prior experience in claims. A risk manager's role greatly depends on whether the organization is commercially insured or self-insured. 950 / 1231 Why is the initial step of claims management so very crucial? Analysis Identification Reporting Without the first step, there is no journey at all. Without the first step, there is no journey at all. 951 / 1231 In pre-trial precedures, what is a joinder? The process of selecting an appellate court. Defense counsel responding to discovery requests. Additional defendants are added to lawsuit. Defendant file suit against plantiff. Joinders add additional defendants to a lawsuit. 952 / 1231 Identify the advantage to using ADRs as an alternative to trial. More economical More likely to receive punitive damages Generally results in larger payouts Allows for cross examination under oath ADRs - outside the judicial process include being more economical. 953 / 1231 Which document involved in the pleading process commands the defendant appears before a judge? Joinder Motion to strike Summons Complaint Petition The summons document orders the defendant to appear before the court. 954 / 1231 Which of the following is a core tenet of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)? Focusing solely on monetary settlements Guaranteeing a faster and cheaper outcome than litigation Seeking resolution outside of traditional court proceedings Avoiding the need for legal representation ADR methods seek to resolve disputes outside the formal court process. 955 / 1231 What is the significance of maintaining a 'claim file'? It provides a secure and organized record of all claim-related documents It ensures compliance with federal record retention laws It reduces the workload of claims adjusters It limits access to confidential patient information Maintaining a claim file ensures organized storage and easy retrieval of all documentation pertaining to that claim. 956 / 1231 During claims management, what is the role of 'analysis and classification'? Deciding whether to settle or litigate the claim Estimating the cost of defending the claim in court Determining the patient's level of satisfaction with their care Evaluating the claim’s merit, coverage, and applicable policies This step involves thoroughly evaluating the claim under applicable policies to appropriately categorize and understand its implications. 957 / 1231 In the context of healthcare claims, what does the term 'PCE' stand for? Potential Compensable Event Potential Compliance Exception Pre-existing Condition Exclusion Preventative Care Exception PCE refers to a Potential Compensable Event, indicating a situation that might lead to a claim or lawsuit. 958 / 1231 Which of the following best describes the role of 'reporting' in the claims management process? Notifying insurers about lawsuits, claims, and potential compensable events Providing regular updates to the board of directors Informing patients about their rights and responsibilities Documenting all communications with legal counsel The 'reporting' phase involves informing the insurer about relevant events, including lawsuits, known claims, or potential claims. 959 / 1231 What is the primary goal of claims management strategies? To maximize profits by denying as many claims as possible To delay claim settlements to preserve company assets To efficiently resolve claims while minimizing financial and reputational damage To outsource all claims handling to third-party administrators Effective claims management aims to balance resolution efficiency with protecting the organization’s finances and reputation. 960 / 1231 According to the materials, what can a professional do to assist? Developing a system wide wellness plan to build resilience and address burnout. Encouraging use of employee assistance programs. Offering a confidential peer support resource for unanticipated outcomes. Supporting insured defendants through all phases of the litigation process. Check slide 53. 961 / 1231 A hospital receives a subpoena for some Medical Records. What is the correct course of action? Amend the records in anticipation of litigation Comply by providing the records Notify the patient Call requesting provider and give them content telephonically. Always notify the patient, as indicated by slide 63. 962 / 1231 You're a risk professional working with defense council on selecting an expert witness in which to defend yourself for alleged brease cancer. Which specialist would you retain? Reconstruction Surgeon Oncologist Family practice The best and only specialist- Surgeon The best strategy would be to pick an Oncologist. 963 / 1231 A hospital is being sued for the actions of one of its employees. That action resulted in hypoglycemia after a glucose level was dropped, and permanent brain damage. The hospital has already been deemed as vicariously liable. What now? The Plaintiff must now sue the employee. The Plaintiff is now precluded from litigation. The Plaintiff has now already won the case. The Plaintiff must now connect and prove damages. Simply determining vicarious liability doesn't mean the Plaintiff wins. He must now connect damages/cause to the action. 964 / 1231 What is the most relevant legal theory for not retaining a surgical sponge? Intentional tort Strict liability Res Ipsa Loquitur Negligence per se Res Ipsa Loquitur would be the legal theory. 965 / 1231 Which of the following actions should the risk professional perform FIRST when a healthcare facility with a claims-made policy receives a request for demand? Retain legal counsel. Notify their carrier. Contact the patient to analyze and receive a recorded statement Start a root-cause analysis of the event. The first step is to notify the carrier, as specified in slide 55. 966 / 1231 Which of the following is correct regarding Insurer and Insured roles? It is the federal duty to defend and reservation of rights. It is the insurer's duty to defend and reservation of rights. It is the states duty to defend and reservation of rights. It is the insured's duty to defend and reservation of rights. It specifically calls out the Insurer duty to defend and reservation of rights. 967 / 1231 According to the material, what are the four major components of controlling losses to implement when involved with Due Diligence? Legal, Financial, Personnel and Training Quality, Costs, Satisfaction and Access. Due diligence, patient communication, policies and procedures and establishing risk transfers. Financial, Reputation, Ethical and Communication The four major components are Due diligence, patient communication, policies and procedures and establishing risk transfers. 968 / 1231 Which scenario would most likely trigger a claim related to "Emergency Medical Services (EMS)"? A hospital administrator denying a patient's request for a second opinion A physician providing incorrect dosage instructions over the phone A pharmacist dispensing a medication with an expired expiration date An ambulance crew restraining a patient against their will without proper justification Unjustified restraint can give rise to a claim against EMS providers. 969 / 1231 What is the primary focus of legal theories related to *'exposures of healthcare entities'*? Increasing revenue through aggressive billing practices Limiting the number of patients seen per day Consolidating multiple small practices into a single large corporation Identifying potential sources of liability for different healthcare settings The main concern is to recognize potential causes of action against facilities like hospitals or medical centers, helping to mitigate risk. 970 / 1231 Which of the following scenarios is most applicable to the legal theory of *corporate negligence*? A surgeon leaving a foreign object inside a patient during surgery A visitor slipping and falling on a wet floor in a hospital lobby A hospital failing to adequately screen physicians, resulting in harm to a patient A nurse administering the wrong medication due to mislabeled packaging Corporate negligence revolves around the institution's direct failures, such as inadequate screening processes. 971 / 1231 What is the key characteristic of ostensible agency? The agent has express authority granted by the principal. A reasonable belief by a third party that the agent acts on behalf of the principal. The agent's actions are directly controlled by the principal at all times. A formal contract outlining the agency relationship is in place. The principle holds the agent responsible based on the appearance of an agency relationship, rather than a formal agreement. 972 / 1231 In legal theories, respondeat superior refers to: A hospital's immunity from liability for contracted physicians. The patient's responsibility for understanding medical advice. A master being responsible for the acts of their servant. The servant being responsible for the acts of their master. According to the doctrine of respondeat superior, employers are responsible for the actions of their employees, provided those actions occur within the scope of employment. 973 / 1231 What is the legal definition of "Res Ipsa Loquitur?" At a single rate The thing speaks for itself In the course of Let the master answer Res Ipsa Loquitur translates to 'the thing speaks for itself'. 974 / 1231 What is the primary purpose of 'setting reserves' in claims management? Estimating the amount needed to settle a claim Investing in future loss prevention technology Paying administrative overhead for the claims department Paying the legal team's retainer fees Setting reserves involves estimating the funds required to resolve a claim, covering settlement or judgment payouts. 975 / 1231 In the context of claims management, what is 'taxonomy' used for? Benchmarking and loss runs Creating a detailed organizational chart Tracking patient satisfaction scores Developing employee training modules Taxonomy is used for benchmarking and loss runs, specifically for insurers and underwriters. 976 / 1231 What action should a risk manager take if a self-insured entity faces a major claim? Delegate the claim solely to external consultants Ignore the claim until legal action is filed Actively participate in managing the claim Pass responsibility to the insurance company Self-insured entities require active engagement from the risk manager in handling claims. 977 / 1231 What documentation related to a claim is time-sensitive and is used to communicate representation? Incident report. Demand letter. Preservation notice. Letter of representation. The letter of representation formally declares legal representation in a claim. 978 / 1231 Which of the following is an element of formal risk assessment, versus informal risk assessment? Employee suggestions Incident reporting Customer feedback Brainstorming sessions Incident reporting is a structured element of formal risk assessment. 979 / 1231 Which activity is part of the 'Identification' stage in claims management? Calculating potential financial reserves Notifying the involved parties' insurance carriers Implementing corrective actions to prevent recurrence Establishing a system for identifying potential losses The initial stage involves setting up a system to spot any potential issues or circumstances that could lead to a claim. 980 / 1231 During the 'investigation' phase of claims management, what is a crucial consideration when using outside investigators? Guaranteeing a favorable outcome in the investigation's findings. Their prior experience in similar cases regardless of credentials. Negotiating the lowest possible hourly rate, regardless of experience. Ensuring they execute a confidentiality agreement compliant with HIPAA. Privacy is paramount; outside investigators must adhere to HIPAA regulations and execute confidentiality agreements. 981 / 1231 A systematic approach to claims management aims primarily to achieve which of the following? Reduce financial loss and negative community image Improve employee satisfaction scores by reducing workload Increase the organization's market share Streamline communication between departments to reduce meetings A focus of claims management is to minimize financial losses and protect the organization's public image. 982 / 1231 Which element is described as being essential for a successful claims management program? Minimizing involvement from legal counsel Support from leadership and board commitment Strict adherence to historical practices Focusing primarily on cost-cutting measures, regardless of quality Leadership and board buy-in are essential to the success of a claims management program. 983 / 1231 According to the material, what constitutes a claim? An attorney's initial consultation with a potential client A rumor or suspicion of potential harm Formal notification that monetary damages are being sought for an alleged injury A patient expressing general dissatisfaction with their care A claim is initiated with a formal notification seeking monetary compensation for a claimed injury. 984 / 1231 Which of the following best describes the role of a risk manager regarding insurance programs? Actively managing all claims regardless of insurance type. Completely uninvolved once insurance coverage is secured. Limited monitoring for commercially insured organizations. Focusing solely on self-insured aspects, ignoring commercial coverage. The risk manager's role differs depending on the insurance program, with commercially insured entities requiring limited monitoring and self-insured entities requiring active participation. 985 / 1231 What is the initial step in the claims management process? Resolution Investigation Reporting Identification The claims management process begins with identifying a potential claim. 986 / 1231 Match each element of documentation improvement process with the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.5: Completing and storing medical records = Develop a process MOI.6: Implemented policy of information technology = Use of information technology MOI.7: CDI program = Effective clinical documentation All necessary documentation improvement processes need corresponding standards to deliver quality patient care. 987 / 1231 Match each MOI standard with the related description: MOI.1: Defining information dissemination plan = For governmental and non-governmental entities MOI.2: Standardizing diagnosis codes = Minimize abbreviations MOI.3: Unique medical records = For all patients seen in the center MOI.4: Policy on rules for medical records = For writing in patients' records Management standards provide frameworks for procedures that govern the use and documentation of medical information. 988 / 1231 Match each document/information with the relevant MOI standard: MOI.1.5: Staff security levels for information access = Document Review MOI.2.2: List of approved abbreviations = Document Review MOI.3.4: Patient demographics = Medical Records MOI.4.3: Error text = Medical Records Documents and information must be kept in accordance with the indicated MOI standards in order to ensure the integrity, privacy, and quality of patient data. 989 / 1231 Match each MOI (Management of Information) standard with the method used to verify compliance: MOI.1.1: Sharing patient demographic and medical information = Staff Interview MOI.1.3: Including Ministry of Health required information = Document Review MOI.5.1: Storage area for medical records = Observation MOI.6.3: Manual downtime regulation = Staff Interview Understanding the methods used to ensure compliance with information management standards is essential for maintaining data integrity and patient safety. 990 / 1231 MOI 7.1 states that documentation improvement in the center is optional, based on available resources. True False MOI 7.1 states there _is_ a policy and procedure for clinical documentation improvement in the center. 991 / 1231 If system failure occurs, MOI 6.2 allows that verbal instructions can be given in place of documented procedures. True False MOI 6.2 requires the policy and procedure describe the _manual procedures_ required to execute various activities in the event of system failure. 992 / 1231 According to MOI 6.1, it is sufficient to only back up generated information annually as long as there is a detailed justification in the facility's policy. True False MOI 6.1 requires that the policy and procedure highlight how the generated information is stored and _regularly_ backed up. 993 / 1231 According to MOI 5.3, non-completed medical records can remain mixed with completed records if they are clearly marked with a bright color tag. True False MOI 5.3 indicates the non-completed medical records are _clearly separated_ from completed ones. 994 / 1231 MOI 5.1 requires that the dedicated and secure storage area for medical records must also be temperature controlled to preserve the integrity of paper records. True False MOI 5.1 states that there must be a dedicated and secure storage area for medical records but does not mention temperature control. 995 / 1231 If an unapproved abbreviation is widely understood within the facility, then its use would still satisfy MOI 4.4. True False MOI 4.4 requires only _standardized_ and _approved_ abbreviations and symbols are used in medical records. 996 / 1231 MOI 4.3 allows for physical erasures in a medical record if the author initials the change and provides a brief explanation nearby. True False MOI 4.3 indicates that entries written in error are not deleted or erased. Instead, a line is passed through the error text and dated, timed, and signed by the author. 997 / 1231 If the policy identifies the staff that must destroy medical records, it satisfies MOI 4.1. True False MOI 4.1 requires that the policy identifies which staff can _write_ in the medical record, not which are involved in destroying it. 998 / 1231 According to MOI 3.6, if patient allergies change frequently, it is permissible to document allergies in a separate, less secure attachment to their record. True False According to MOI 3.6, ensure patient allergies, prior adverse reactions, and chronic infections are confidentially documented and consistently displayed in a specified area of the patient's record. 999 / 1231 If medical information is sufficient to safely manage the patient, continuity of medical care is not a relevant concern in MOI 3.5. True False According to MOI 3.5, medical record must contain updated information that is sufficient to safely manage and promote continuity of medical care. 1000 / 1231 According to MOI 3.3, the medical record's contents are to be arranged according to a non-standard process depending on the complexity of the patient history. True False MOI 3.3 specifies the medical record's contents are arranged according to a _standardized_ process. 1001 / 1231 MOI 3.1 requires that the physical space where each patient is seen has a unique medical record number. True False MOI 3.1 states that each patient has a unique medical record number. 1002 / 1231 According to MOI 2.2, a list of approved abbreviations and symbols is distributed in all patient care areas *except* when dealing with complex cases. True False MOI 2.2 states a list should be available in all patient care areas without exception. 1003 / 1231 MOI 2.1 states that staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that are consistent with the Ministry of Truth. True False MOI 2.1 indicates consistency with diagnosis and procedure codes consistent with the Ministry of _Health_. 1004 / 1231 If different documents have retention times in agreement with the Ministry of Health, the MOI 1.7 requirements are satisfied. True False MOI 1.7 requires the plan highlights the different documents retention time consistent with Ministry of Health rules and regulations. 1005 / 1231 MOI 1.5 states the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information. True False MOI 1.5 specifically says that the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information. 1006 / 1231 If the plan includes the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting then it automatically satisfies MOI 1.3. True False MOI 1.3 specifically states that the plan should include the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting. 1007 / 1231 MOI 1.1 requires that the plan highlights how patient geographical information is shared among medical and administrative staff. True False MOI 1.1 indicates that the plan highlights how patient _demographic_ and medical information is shared, not patient geographical information. 1008 / 1231 If the number of standards is 7, then the number of sub standards must always be 49 in the Management of Information chapter. True False With 7 standards, the number of sub standards is 28. There is no requirement that the one multiple is always related to the other. 1009 / 1231 The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board focuses exclusively on inpatient healthcare institution accreditation. True False The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board specifically deals with the accreditation of _ambulatory_ healthcare institutions. 1010 / 1231 According to MOI.6, the use of information technology requires appropriate policies and procedures. What is not addressed in the facility policy? Staff can demonstrate the manual procedure for the downtime regulation. The policy and procedure highlighted who the information is shared with. The policy and procedure highlight how the generated information is stored and regularly backed up. The policy and procedure describe the manual procedures required to execute the various activities in the event of system failure, maintenance or repair. The policy shares the how, but not the who. 1011 / 1231 According to MOI.5.3 about non-completed medical records, what protocol should healthcare facilities implement? Stored indiscriminately alongside other records to facilitate easy access and retrieval. Disposed of immediately to prevent the buildup of incomplete documentation. Forwarded to external agencies. Clearly separated from completed ones in the storage area and are completed within a timeframe that the organization defines. Clearly separated from completed ones and completed within a timeframe. 1012 / 1231 According to MOI.4.3, what is the recommended approach for correcting errors made in a patient's medical record? Erase or delete the original entry and replace it with the correct information. Use correction fluid to cover up the error and write the correct information on top. Draw a line across the error text, date, time, and sign the correction to maintain transparency and preserve the original information. Leave the error uncorrected and add a separate note explaining the mistake. Draw a line; do not erase. 1013 / 1231 According to MOI.4.2, which of the following guidelines should all entries in a medical record adhere to? Entries should be concise and abbreviated to save time and space. Entries should be standardized and uniform across all healthcare providers. Entries should include personal opinions and subjective interpretations. All entries should be legible, dated, timed, and signed by the author to ensure accountability and facilitate auditing. Entries should be legible, dated, timed and signed. 1014 / 1231 According to MOI.4.1, why is it important to identify the category of staff allowed to write in the medical record? To limit access. To ensure that only qualified and authorized individuals contribute to patient documentation, maintaining accuracy and accountability. To optimize workflow efficiency by delegating documentation tasks to lower-level personnel. There is no need. This ensures only qualified individuals contribute to patient documentation. 1015 / 1231 According to MOI.4, leaders should develop a policy on the rules and regulation for writing patients’ medical records. What aspect of documentation does this primarily address? Providing clear guidelines for documenting patient information to ensure accuracy, legibility, and standardization. Defining the tools and technologies used for documentation to minimize errors. Establishing protocols for storing and retrieving medical records to ensure data security. Dictating the frequency and timing of documentation to optimize workflow efficiency. It is important to provide clear guidelines for documentation. 1016 / 1231 According to MOI.3.6, what considerations should guide the documentation and display of patient allergies, prior adverse reactions, and chronic infections? Including the information. Omitting information. Documenting them confidentially and displaying them consistently in a specified area of the patient's record Sharing the records freely. These should be documented confidentially. 1017 / 1231 What is the primary purpose of including updated medical information in a patient's medical record, as emphasized in MOI.3.5? To ensure compliance with legal mandates and avoid legal issues. Promote patient engagement. To facilitate communication. To enable healthcare providers to safely manage the patient's condition and ensure continuity of medical care. To enable healthcare providers to safely manage the patient's condition and ensure continuity of medical care. 1018 / 1231 According to MOI.3.4, what are the key patient demographics that should be included in a medical record? National identification, contact information, emergency contacts, and insurance category. Educational background, employment history, and financial status. Genetic information, family medical history, and dietary restrictions. Social media profiles, preferred communication methods, and lifestyle preferences. Required information: National identification, contact information, emergency contacts, and insurance category. 1019 / 1231 According to MOI.3.3, how does a standardized approach to arranging the contents of medical records benefit healthcare providers and patients? It ensures that medical records comply with legal and regulatory requirements. It reduces the risk of errors and omissions in medical documentation. It simplifies the process of auditing and reviewing medical records for quality assurance purposes. It enables healthcare providers to quickly locate relevant information, facilitating efficient and accurate care delivery. A standardized process to medical records helps health providers quickly locate info. 1020 / 1231 According to MOI.3.2, what would most likely indicate effective medical record keeping for patients? Storing medical records in multiple locations to minimize the risk of data loss. Maintaining a single integrated medical record to prevent redundancy and ensure easy access to comprehensive information. Allowing patients to create and maintain their own medical records. Discarding old medical records regularly to create space for new ones. Maintaining a single integrated medical record ensures easy access to information. 1021 / 1231 According to MOI.3, what is the primary importance of each patient having a unique medical record? Simplifies the process of tracking patient demographics and insurance information. Facilitates data analysis and reporting for quality improvement initiatives. Allows efficient record management, accurate identification, and personalized care tailored to individual needs. Ensures that medical records are easily accessible and transferable to other healthcare facilities. Unique records allow efficient record management and personalized care. 1022 / 1231 According to MOI.2.2, what step can healthcare facilities take to promote standardization and clarity in clinical documentation? Discouraging the use of abbreviations and symbols. Distributing a list of approved abbreviations and symptoms in all patient care areas to ensure consistent communication. Encouraging staff. Implementing complex coding systems. Distributing a list of abbreviations and symbols promotes standardization. 1023 / 1231 According to MOI.2.1, why should staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that align with the Ministry of Health and other regulatory bodies' requirements? To avoid the potential for coding errors and reduce the risk of billing discrepancies and legal issues. To maximize reimbursement rates and increase revenue for the facility. To ensure patients receive the most advanced and innovative treatments available. To promote uniformity and create a level playing field among healthcare providers. Using standardized codes reduces billing discrepancies and legal issues. 1024 / 1231 According to MOI.2, what is the primary goal of developing standardized diagnosis codes, procedure codes, and symbols? To simplify documentation processes and reduce administrative burden. To facilitate clear communication, accurate billing, and data analysis across different healthcare settings. To promote innovation and creativity. To compete with other facilities. Developing standardized codes, procedure codes and symbols allows clear communication. 1025 / 1231 According to MOI.1.7, what is the primary reason for maintaining consistent document retention times in accordance with Ministry of Health rules and regulations? To ensure compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, and facilitate accurate historical data analysis. To free up storage space and reduce administrative costs. To simplify the process of retrieving information for research purposes. To limit access to older records and protect patient privacy. Maintaining consistent document retention times ensures compliance with regulation. 1026 / 1231 According to MOI.1.6 , what is the primary consideration for ensuring the security of patient information? Implementing robust security measures and secure storage practices to prevent unauthorized access, loss, or damage. Minimizing the amount of patient data collected to reduce the risk of security breaches. Focusing exclusively on digital security measures and neglecting physical security. Relying solely on physical safeguards such as locked cabinets and security cameras. Robust security measures and secure storage practices are important. 1027 / 1231 According to MOI.1.5, what should healthcare facilities do to protect patient data and maintain confidentiality? By allowing all staff members unrestricted access to patient information to ensure efficient workflow. By storing all patient information on personal devices to facilitate remote access. By implementing tiered security levels for accessing information based on staff roles and responsibilities. By sharing patient data with third-party vendors to improve service delivery. Facilities should implement tiered security levels to protect patient data. 1028 / 1231 Why is it important to highlight the patient's personal and medical information when referring them to a higher center, according to MOI.1.4? To streamline the billing process and ensure accurate reimbursement for services rendered. To ensure the higher center has all necessary details to provide appropriate care and facilitate a smooth transition. To comply with legal requirements and avoid potential lawsuits. To demonstrate the referring facility's competence and build trust with the higher center. Highlighting patient's personal and medical information ensures continuity of appropriate care. 1029 / 1231 What is the primary purpose of including the Ministry of Health's required information in the reporting process, as stated in MOI.1.3? To promote the facility's achievements and attract more patients. To share the facility's financial performance with the Ministry for funding opportunities. To ensure the facility meets regulatory requirements and contributes to national health statistics and planning. To gain access to the Ministry's resources and expertise for staff training and development. Including the Ministry of Health's required information ensures regulatory compliance. 1030 / 1231 According to MOI.1.2, how should healthcare leaders ensure effective communication of information to staff? By disseminating all information through a single channel to avoid confusion and ensure consistency. By limiting communication to only essential information to prevent information overload. By communicating similar types of information, and tailoring their approach to suit different roles and levels of understanding. By primarily using written memos and avoiding face-to-face interactions to maintain a formal environment. Healthcare leaders should tailor communication methods to different staff needs. 1031 / 1231 What is the primary goal of sharing information among staff, governmental, and non-governmental entities as defined in MOI.1? To maintain transparency and compliance. To promote the facility's services and attract funding from various organizations. To ensure all entities have access to the facility's financial records for auditing purposes. To streamline communication and ensure coordinated efforts while respecting data privacy and security protocols. Sharing information among staff and other entities aims to streamline communication and coordination. 1032 / 1231 In the context of healthcare accreditation, what is the significance of 'Policies and Procedures (P&P)'? They dictate the architectural design of healthcare facilities to promote patient comfort. They primarily address human resource management, including staff training and development. They serve as a framework for consistent and standardized operations, ensuring quality and compliance. They outline marketing strategies to attract more patients and increase revenue. Policies and Procedures (P&P) are crucial for standardization of healthcare operations. 1033 / 1231 The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board for Accreditation of Healthcare Institutions emphasizes the importance of which aspect in healthcare facilities? Ensuring all staff members are proficient in multiple languages to cater to a diverse patient population. Implementing the latest technology solutions. Achieving and maintaining accreditation through adherence to standardized healthcare practices. Focusing primarily on inpatient services while minimizing ambulatory care. The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board is responsible for the accreditation of healthcare institutions, emphasizing adherence to standards. 1034 / 1231 Which of the following represents the primary focus of Clinical Documentation Improvement (CDI) policies and procedures? Ensuring all healthcare providers are proficient in using the latest electronic health record (EHR) systems. Standardizing the physical storage of patient records to ensure easy retrieval. Restricting access to patient information to only a select group of healthcare providers. Improving the accuracy and completeness of clinical documentation to support quality healthcare and accurate coding. CDI policies and procedures aim to enhance the quality of healthcare by ensuring that clinical documentation is accurate, complete, and supports appropriate coding and billing practices. 1035 / 1231 Which MOI standards relate to patients? Classify each item using the correct standard.: Ensuring standardized codes are present = MOI.2 Unique medical records for patients = MOI.3 Ensuring records are only documented by professional medical staff = MOI.4 All of the best patient support standards should ensure their privacy. 1036 / 1231 Match the MOI standard relating to IT to the type of information required of it: Securing and safely storing data = MOI.1.6 Manual procedures for IT = MOI.6.2 Information standards help ensure that IT can continue to run in a medical setting. 1037 / 1231 Match the types of leadership responsibilitiy standards to the following: Government and non governmental leadership in facilities = MOI.1.1 Policy development with leadership = MOI.4 Developing a process for completing and storing standards = MOI.5 Leadership is trained to facilitate a working environment 1038 / 1231 Match medical standards and documentation with the following: Ensure documentation per policy = MOI.7.1 Doctor and nurse training = MOI.7.2 Medical professionals are experts in medicine and therefore must comply with training. 1039 / 1231 Match the center tech standard with the measures they must oversee: Data backed up = MOI.6.1 Manual procedures = MOI.6.2 All medical center teck standards must comply with specific measures. 1040 / 1231 Match MOI standard per facility to the storage record measure: Dedicated and secure storage = MOI.5.2 Completed medical records storage = MOI.5.3 Percentage tracking of incomplete records over time = MOI.5.4 Ensure that storage records meet standard measures to facilitate retention and minimize tampering. 1041 / 1231 Match the MOI standard, per facility, to the safety and compliance measure it represents: Identify staff writing privileges = MOI.4.1 All records dated = MOI.4.2 Corrections done correctly in records = MOI.4.3 Ensure compliance with safety and quality measures required in facilities. 1042 / 1231 Match each type of medical record from the following facilities to the correct MOI standard: Unique medical record per patient = MOI.3.1 Only one medical contact = MOI.3.2 Ensuring only approved abbreviations = MOI.4.4 Standards need to be set to comply with each medical center. 1043 / 1231 Match each of the following document reviews to the correct MOI standard: Ensuring ministry of health requirements = MOI.1.3 Ensuring ministry of health regulations = MOI.1.7 Standard list of abbreviations = MOI.2.2 Dedicated medical record storage = MOI.5.1 Meeting standards in documentation can require document reviews. 1044 / 1231 Indicate the correct MOI standard by matching each of the following definitions: Policy identifying staff for writing records = MOI.4.1 Requirement of staff interviews = MOI.1.1 Staff security to access information = MOI.1.5 Policy and procedure on information = MOI.6.1 To ensure a safe working environement it is critical to have a safe medical record environment. 1045 / 1231 Match each aspect of a unique medical record usage to the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.3.1: Medical record = A unique identification MOI.3.3: Arrange content = Standardized process MOI.3.4: Medical record contains = Emergency contact MOI.4.1: Identify category = Staff allowed to write Medical records need a corresponding standard that ensures proper information. 1046 / 1231 Match each IT policy with the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.1.2: Information types = Communicated by leaders MOI.1.6: Information secure = Secured and safely stored MOI.6.2: Downtime = Manual procedure MOI.6.3: Maintenance activities = Event system failure IT policies need certain standards to maintain an up-to-date and secure data. 1047 / 1231 Match each storage aspect of medical records to the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.5.2: Regular returns = Ensure completion MOI.5.3: Non-completed record = Separate storage area MOI.6.1: Generated information = Backed up regularly Storage aspect standards needs corresponding standards that ensures data and privacy consistency. 1048 / 1231 Match each aspect of facility policy compliance with its corresponding MOI standard: MOI.1.7: Retention time documents = Consistent with regulations MOI.5.4: Incomplete record = Compliance with completion MOI.7.1: Clinical documentation improvement = Policy and procedure MOI.7.2: Clinical documentation improvement people = Physician and nurse needed Facilities need compliance with certain MOI standards to ensure quality data integrity. 1049 / 1231 Match each medical record error correction aspect to the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.4.2: Legible medical record = All entries are dated and timed MOI.4.3: Error medical record = A line is passed and dated MOI.2.1: Diagnosis and procedures = Regulatory bodies requirement To maintain the standards and integrity of patients' medical documents, documentation error corrections is essential. 1050 / 1231 Match each component of patient record management to the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.3.2: A patient's medical record = One medical record MOI.3.5: Medical information = To manage patient MOI.3.6: Patient allergies = Documented and displayed MOI.4.4: Abbreviations = Standardized and approved Managing patient records require a corresponding standards, which ensures quality and consistency. 1051 / 1231 Match each element of documentation improvement process with the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.5: Completing and storing medical records = Develop a process MOI.6: Implemented policy of information technology = Use of information technology MOI.7: CDI program = Effective clinical documentation All necessary documentation improvement processes need corresponding standards to deliver quality patient care. 1052 / 1231 Match each MOI standard with the related description: MOI.1: Defining information dissemination plan = For governmental and non-governmental entities MOI.2: Standardizing diagnosis codes = Minimize abbreviations MOI.3: Unique medical records = For all patients seen in the center MOI.4: Policy on rules for medical records = For writing in patients' records Management standards provide frameworks for procedures that govern the use and documentation of medical information. 1053 / 1231 Match each document/information with the relevant MOI standard: MOI.1.5: Staff security levels for information access = Document Review MOI.2.2: List of approved abbreviations = Document Review MOI.3.4: Patient demographics = Medical Records MOI.4.3: Error text = Medical Records Documents and information must be kept in accordance with the indicated MOI standards in order to ensure the integrity, privacy, and quality of patient data. 1054 / 1231 Match each MOI (Management of Information) standard with the method used to verify compliance: MOI.1.1: Sharing patient demographic and medical information = Staff Interview MOI.1.3: Including Ministry of Health required information = Document Review MOI.5.1: Storage area for medical records = Observation MOI.6.3: Manual downtime regulation = Staff Interview Understanding the methods used to ensure compliance with information management standards is essential for maintaining data integrity and patient safety. 1055 / 1231 MOI 7.1 states that documentation improvement in the center is optional, based on available resources. True False MOI 7.1 states there _is_ a policy and procedure for clinical documentation improvement in the center. 1056 / 1231 If system failure occurs, MOI 6.2 allows that verbal instructions can be given in place of documented procedures. True False MOI 6.2 requires the policy and procedure describe the _manual procedures_ required to execute various activities in the event of system failure. 1057 / 1231 According to MOI 6.1, it is sufficient to only back up generated information annually as long as there is a detailed justification in the facility's policy. True False MOI 6.1 requires that the policy and procedure highlight how the generated information is stored and _regularly_ backed up. 1058 / 1231 According to MOI 5.3, non-completed medical records can remain mixed with completed records if they are clearly marked with a bright color tag. True False MOI 5.3 indicates the non-completed medical records are _clearly separated_ from completed ones. 1059 / 1231 MOI 5.1 requires that the dedicated and secure storage area for medical records must also be temperature controlled to preserve the integrity of paper records. True False MOI 5.1 states that there must be a dedicated and secure storage area for medical records but does not mention temperature control. 1060 / 1231 If an unapproved abbreviation is widely understood within the facility, then its use would still satisfy MOI 4.4. True False MOI 4.4 requires only _standardized_ and _approved_ abbreviations and symbols are used in medical records. 1061 / 1231 MOI 4.3 allows for physical erasures in a medical record if the author initials the change and provides a brief explanation nearby. True False MOI 4.3 indicates that entries written in error are not deleted or erased. Instead, a line is passed through the error text and dated, timed, and signed by the author. 1062 / 1231 If the policy identifies the staff that must destroy medical records, it satisfies MOI 4.1. True False MOI 4.1 requires that the policy identifies which staff can _write_ in the medical record, not which are involved in destroying it. 1063 / 1231 According to MOI 3.6, if patient allergies change frequently, it is permissible to document allergies in a separate, less secure attachment to their record. True False According to MOI 3.6, ensure patient allergies, prior adverse reactions, and chronic infections are confidentially documented and consistently displayed in a specified area of the patient's record. 1064 / 1231 If medical information is sufficient to safely manage the patient, continuity of medical care is not a relevant concern in MOI 3.5. True False According to MOI 3.5, medical record must contain updated information that is sufficient to safely manage and promote continuity of medical care. 1065 / 1231 According to MOI 3.3, the medical record's contents are to be arranged according to a non-standard process depending on the complexity of the patient history. True False MOI 3.3 specifies the medical record's contents are arranged according to a _standardized_ process. 1066 / 1231 MOI 3.1 requires that the physical space where each patient is seen has a unique medical record number. True False MOI 3.1 states that each patient has a unique medical record number. 1067 / 1231 According to MOI 2.2, a list of approved abbreviations and symbols is distributed in all patient care areas *except* when dealing with complex cases. True False MOI 2.2 states a list should be available in all patient care areas without exception. 1068 / 1231 MOI 2.1 states that staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that are consistent with the Ministry of Truth. True False MOI 2.1 indicates consistency with diagnosis and procedure codes consistent with the Ministry of _Health_. 1069 / 1231 If different documents have retention times in agreement with the Ministry of Health, the MOI 1.7 requirements are satisfied. True False MOI 1.7 requires the plan highlights the different documents retention time consistent with Ministry of Health rules and regulations. 1070 / 1231 MOI 1.5 states the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information. True False MOI 1.5 specifically says that the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information. 1071 / 1231 If the plan includes the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting then it automatically satisfies MOI 1.3. True False MOI 1.3 specifically states that the plan should include the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting. 1072 / 1231 MOI 1.1 requires that the plan highlights how patient geographical information is shared among medical and administrative staff. True False MOI 1.1 indicates that the plan highlights how patient _demographic_ and medical information is shared, not patient geographical information. 1073 / 1231 If the number of standards is 7, then the number of sub standards must always be 49 in the Management of Information chapter. True False With 7 standards, the number of sub standards is 28. There is no requirement that the one multiple is always related to the other. 1074 / 1231 The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board focuses exclusively on inpatient healthcare institution accreditation. True False The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board specifically deals with the accreditation of _ambulatory_ healthcare institutions. 1075 / 1231 According to MOI.6, the use of information technology requires appropriate policies and procedures. What is not addressed in the facility policy? Staff can demonstrate the manual procedure for the downtime regulation. The policy and procedure highlighted who the information is shared with. The policy and procedure highlight how the generated information is stored and regularly backed up. The policy and procedure describe the manual procedures required to execute the various activities in the event of system failure, maintenance or repair. The policy shares the how, but not the who. 1076 / 1231 According to MOI.5.3 about non-completed medical records, what protocol should healthcare facilities implement? Stored indiscriminately alongside other records to facilitate easy access and retrieval. Disposed of immediately to prevent the buildup of incomplete documentation. Forwarded to external agencies. Clearly separated from completed ones in the storage area and are completed within a timeframe that the organization defines. Clearly separated from completed ones and completed within a timeframe. 1077 / 1231 According to MOI.4.3, what is the recommended approach for correcting errors made in a patient's medical record? Erase or delete the original entry and replace it with the correct information. Use correction fluid to cover up the error and write the correct information on top. Draw a line across the error text, date, time, and sign the correction to maintain transparency and preserve the original information. Leave the error uncorrected and add a separate note explaining the mistake. Draw a line; do not erase. 1078 / 1231 According to MOI.4.2, which of the following guidelines should all entries in a medical record adhere to? Entries should be concise and abbreviated to save time and space. Entries should be standardized and uniform across all healthcare providers. Entries should include personal opinions and subjective interpretations. All entries should be legible, dated, timed, and signed by the author to ensure accountability and facilitate auditing. Entries should be legible, dated, timed and signed. 1079 / 1231 According to MOI.4.1, why is it important to identify the category of staff allowed to write in the medical record? To limit access. To ensure that only qualified and authorized individuals contribute to patient documentation, maintaining accuracy and accountability. To optimize workflow efficiency by delegating documentation tasks to lower-level personnel. There is no need. This ensures only qualified individuals contribute to patient documentation. 1080 / 1231 According to MOI.4, leaders should develop a policy on the rules and regulation for writing patients’ medical records. What aspect of documentation does this primarily address? Providing clear guidelines for documenting patient information to ensure accuracy, legibility, and standardization. Defining the tools and technologies used for documentation to minimize errors. Establishing protocols for storing and retrieving medical records to ensure data security. Dictating the frequency and timing of documentation to optimize workflow efficiency. It is important to provide clear guidelines for documentation. 1081 / 1231 According to MOI.3.6, what considerations should guide the documentation and display of patient allergies, prior adverse reactions, and chronic infections? Documenting them confidentially and displaying them consistently in a specified area of the patient's record Sharing the records freely. Including the information. Omitting information. These should be documented confidentially. 1082 / 1231 What is the primary purpose of including updated medical information in a patient's medical record, as emphasized in MOI.3.5? To ensure compliance with legal mandates and avoid legal issues. Promote patient engagement. To facilitate communication. To enable healthcare providers to safely manage the patient's condition and ensure continuity of medical care. To enable healthcare providers to safely manage the patient's condition and ensure continuity of medical care. 1083 / 1231 According to MOI.3.4, what are the key patient demographics that should be included in a medical record? National identification, contact information, emergency contacts, and insurance category. Educational background, employment history, and financial status. Genetic information, family medical history, and dietary restrictions. Social media profiles, preferred communication methods, and lifestyle preferences. Required information: National identification, contact information, emergency contacts, and insurance category. 1084 / 1231 According to MOI.3.3, how does a standardized approach to arranging the contents of medical records benefit healthcare providers and patients? It ensures that medical records comply with legal and regulatory requirements. It reduces the risk of errors and omissions in medical documentation. It simplifies the process of auditing and reviewing medical records for quality assurance purposes. It enables healthcare providers to quickly locate relevant information, facilitating efficient and accurate care delivery. A standardized process to medical records helps health providers quickly locate info. 1085 / 1231 According to MOI.3.2, what would most likely indicate effective medical record keeping for patients? Storing medical records in multiple locations to minimize the risk of data loss. Maintaining a single integrated medical record to prevent redundancy and ensure easy access to comprehensive information. Allowing patients to create and maintain their own medical records. Discarding old medical records regularly to create space for new ones. Maintaining a single integrated medical record ensures easy access to information. 1086 / 1231 According to MOI.3, what is the primary importance of each patient having a unique medical record? Simplifies the process of tracking patient demographics and insurance information. Facilitates data analysis and reporting for quality improvement initiatives. Allows efficient record management, accurate identification, and personalized care tailored to individual needs. Ensures that medical records are easily accessible and transferable to other healthcare facilities. Unique records allow efficient record management and personalized care. 1087 / 1231 According to MOI.2.2, what step can healthcare facilities take to promote standardization and clarity in clinical documentation? Discouraging the use of abbreviations and symbols. Distributing a list of approved abbreviations and symptoms in all patient care areas to ensure consistent communication. Encouraging staff. Implementing complex coding systems. Distributing a list of abbreviations and symbols promotes standardization. 1088 / 1231 According to MOI.2.1, why should staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that align with the Ministry of Health and other regulatory bodies' requirements? To avoid the potential for coding errors and reduce the risk of billing discrepancies and legal issues. To maximize reimbursement rates and increase revenue for the facility. To ensure patients receive the most advanced and innovative treatments available. To promote uniformity and create a level playing field among healthcare providers. Using standardized codes reduces billing discrepancies and legal issues. 1089 / 1231 According to MOI.2, what is the primary goal of developing standardized diagnosis codes, procedure codes, and symbols? To simplify documentation processes and reduce administrative burden. To facilitate clear communication, accurate billing, and data analysis across different healthcare settings. To promote innovation and creativity. To compete with other facilities. Developing standardized codes, procedure codes and symbols allows clear communication. 1090 / 1231 According to MOI.1.7, what is the primary reason for maintaining consistent document retention times in accordance with Ministry of Health rules and regulations? To ensure compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, and facilitate accurate historical data analysis. To free up storage space and reduce administrative costs. To simplify the process of retrieving information for research purposes. To limit access to older records and protect patient privacy. Maintaining consistent document retention times ensures compliance with regulation. 1091 / 1231 According to MOI.1.6 , what is the primary consideration for ensuring the security of patient information? Implementing robust security measures and secure storage practices to prevent unauthorized access, loss, or damage. Minimizing the amount of patient data collected to reduce the risk of security breaches. Focusing exclusively on digital security measures and neglecting physical security. Relying solely on physical safeguards such as locked cabinets and security cameras. Robust security measures and secure storage practices are important. 1092 / 1231 According to MOI.1.5, what should healthcare facilities do to protect patient data and maintain confidentiality? By allowing all staff members unrestricted access to patient information to ensure efficient workflow. By storing all patient information on personal devices to facilitate remote access. By implementing tiered security levels for accessing information based on staff roles and responsibilities. By sharing patient data with third-party vendors to improve service delivery. Facilities should implement tiered security levels to protect patient data. 1093 / 1231 Why is it important to highlight the patient's personal and medical information when referring them to a higher center, according to MOI.1.4? To streamline the billing process and ensure accurate reimbursement for services rendered. To ensure the higher center has all necessary details to provide appropriate care and facilitate a smooth transition. To comply with legal requirements and avoid potential lawsuits. To demonstrate the referring facility's competence and build trust with the higher center. Highlighting patient's personal and medical information ensures continuity of appropriate care. 1094 / 1231 What is the primary purpose of including the Ministry of Health's required information in the reporting process, as stated in MOI.1.3? To promote the facility's achievements and attract more patients. To share the facility's financial performance with the Ministry for funding opportunities. To ensure the facility meets regulatory requirements and contributes to national health statistics and planning. To gain access to the Ministry's resources and expertise for staff training and development. Including the Ministry of Health's required information ensures regulatory compliance. 1095 / 1231 According to MOI.1.2, how should healthcare leaders ensure effective communication of information to staff? By disseminating all information through a single channel to avoid confusion and ensure consistency. By limiting communication to only essential information to prevent information overload. By communicating similar types of information, and tailoring their approach to suit different roles and levels of understanding. By primarily using written memos and avoiding face-to-face interactions to maintain a formal environment. Healthcare leaders should tailor communication methods to different staff needs. 1096 / 1231 What is the primary goal of sharing information among staff, governmental, and non-governmental entities as defined in MOI.1? To maintain transparency and compliance. To promote the facility's services and attract funding from various organizations. To ensure all entities have access to the facility's financial records for auditing purposes. To streamline communication and ensure coordinated efforts while respecting data privacy and security protocols. Sharing information among staff and other entities aims to streamline communication and coordination. 1097 / 1231 In the context of healthcare accreditation, what is the significance of 'Policies and Procedures (P&P)'? They dictate the architectural design of healthcare facilities to promote patient comfort. They primarily address human resource management, including staff training and development. They serve as a framework for consistent and standardized operations, ensuring quality and compliance. They outline marketing strategies to attract more patients and increase revenue. Policies and Procedures (P&P) are crucial for standardization of healthcare operations. 1098 / 1231 The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board for Accreditation of Healthcare Institutions emphasizes the importance of which aspect in healthcare facilities? Ensuring all staff members are proficient in multiple languages to cater to a diverse patient population. Implementing the latest technology solutions. Achieving and maintaining accreditation through adherence to standardized healthcare practices. Focusing primarily on inpatient services while minimizing ambulatory care. The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board is responsible for the accreditation of healthcare institutions, emphasizing adherence to standards. 1099 / 1231 Which of the following represents the primary focus of Clinical Documentation Improvement (CDI) policies and procedures? Ensuring all healthcare providers are proficient in using the latest electronic health record (EHR) systems. Standardizing the physical storage of patient records to ensure easy retrieval. Restricting access to patient information to only a select group of healthcare providers. Improving the accuracy and completeness of clinical documentation to support quality healthcare and accurate coding. CDI policies and procedures aim to enhance the quality of healthcare by ensuring that clinical documentation is accurate, complete, and supports appropriate coding and billing practices. 1100 / 1231 Which MOI standards relate to patients? Classify each item using the correct standard.: Ensuring standardized codes are present = MOI.2 Unique medical records for patients = MOI.3 Ensuring records are only documented by professional medical staff = MOI.4 All of the best patient support standards should ensure their privacy. 1101 / 1231 Match the MOI standard relating to IT to the type of information required of it: Securing and safely storing data = MOI.1.6 Manual procedures for IT = MOI.6.2 Information standards help ensure that IT can continue to run in a medical setting. 1102 / 1231 Match the types of leadership responsibilitiy standards to the following: Government and non governmental leadership in facilities = MOI.1.1 Policy development with leadership = MOI.4 Developing a process for completing and storing standards = MOI.5 Leadership is trained to facilitate a working environment 1103 / 1231 Match medical standards and documentation with the following: Ensure documentation per policy = MOI.7.1 Doctor and nurse training = MOI.7.2 Medical professionals are experts in medicine and therefore must comply with training. 1104 / 1231 Match the center tech standard with the measures they must oversee: Data backed up = MOI.6.1 Manual procedures = MOI.6.2 All medical center teck standards must comply with specific measures. 1105 / 1231 Match MOI standard per facility to the storage record measure: Dedicated and secure storage = MOI.5.2 Completed medical records storage = MOI.5.3 Percentage tracking of incomplete records over time = MOI.5.4 Ensure that storage records meet standard measures to facilitate retention and minimize tampering. 1106 / 1231 Match the MOI standard, per facility, to the safety and compliance measure it represents: Identify staff writing privileges = MOI.4.1 All records dated = MOI.4.2 Corrections done correctly in records = MOI.4.3 Ensure compliance with safety and quality measures required in facilities. 1107 / 1231 Match each type of medical record from the following facilities to the correct MOI standard: Unique medical record per patient = MOI.3.1 Only one medical contact = MOI.3.2 Ensuring only approved abbreviations = MOI.4.4 Standards need to be set to comply with each medical center. 1108 / 1231 Match each of the following document reviews to the correct MOI standard: Ensuring ministry of health requirements = MOI.1.3 Ensuring ministry of health regulations = MOI.1.7 Standard list of abbreviations = MOI.2.2 Dedicated medical record storage = MOI.5.1 Meeting standards in documentation can require document reviews. 1109 / 1231 Indicate the correct MOI standard by matching each of the following definitions: Policy identifying staff for writing records = MOI.4.1 Requirement of staff interviews = MOI.1.1 Staff security to access information = MOI.1.5 Policy and procedure on information = MOI.6.1 To ensure a safe working environement it is critical to have a safe medical record environment. 1110 / 1231 Match each aspect of a unique medical record usage to the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.3.1: Medical record = A unique identification MOI.3.3: Arrange content = Standardized process MOI.3.4: Medical record contains = Emergency contact MOI.4.1: Identify category = Staff allowed to write Medical records need a corresponding standard that ensures proper information. 1111 / 1231 Match each IT policy with the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.1.2: Information types = Communicated by leaders MOI.1.6: Information secure = Secured and safely stored MOI.6.2: Downtime = Manual procedure MOI.6.3: Maintenance activities = Event system failure IT policies need certain standards to maintain an up-to-date and secure data. 1112 / 1231 Match each storage aspect of medical records to the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.5.2: Regular returns = Ensure completion MOI.5.3: Non-completed record = Separate storage area MOI.6.1: Generated information = Backed up regularly Storage aspect standards needs corresponding standards that ensures data and privacy consistency. 1113 / 1231 Match each aspect of facility policy compliance with its corresponding MOI standard: MOI.1.7: Retention time documents = Consistent with regulations MOI.5.4: Incomplete record = Compliance with completion MOI.7.1: Clinical documentation improvement = Policy and procedure MOI.7.2: Clinical documentation improvement people = Physician and nurse needed Facilities need compliance with certain MOI standards to ensure quality data integrity. 1114 / 1231 Match each medical record error correction aspect to the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.4.2: Legible medical record = All entries are dated and timed MOI.4.3: Error medical record = A line is passed and dated MOI.2.1: Diagnosis and procedures = Regulatory bodies requirement To maintain the standards and integrity of patients' medical documents, documentation error corrections is essential. 1115 / 1231 Match each component of patient record management to the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.3.2: A patient's medical record = One medical record MOI.3.5: Medical information = To manage patient MOI.3.6: Patient allergies = Documented and displayed MOI.4.4: Abbreviations = Standardized and approved Managing patient records require a corresponding standards, which ensures quality and consistency. 1116 / 1231 Match each element of documentation improvement process with the corresponding MOI standard: MOI.5: Completing and storing medical records = Develop a process MOI.6: Implemented policy of information technology = Use of information technology MOI.7: CDI program = Effective clinical documentation All necessary documentation improvement processes need corresponding standards to deliver quality patient care. 1117 / 1231 Match each MOI standard with the related description: MOI.1: Defining information dissemination plan = For governmental and non-governmental entities MOI.2: Standardizing diagnosis codes = Minimize abbreviations MOI.3: Unique medical records = For all patients seen in the center MOI.4: Policy on rules for medical records = For writing in patients' records Management standards provide frameworks for procedures that govern the use and documentation of medical information. 1118 / 1231 Match each document/information with the relevant MOI standard: MOI.1.5: Staff security levels for information access = Document Review MOI.2.2: List of approved abbreviations = Document Review MOI.3.4: Patient demographics = Medical Records MOI.4.3: Error text = Medical Records Documents and information must be kept in accordance with the indicated MOI standards in order to ensure the integrity, privacy, and quality of patient data. 1119 / 1231 Match each MOI (Management of Information) standard with the method used to verify compliance: MOI.1.1: Sharing patient demographic and medical information = Staff Interview MOI.1.3: Including Ministry of Health required information = Document Review MOI.5.1: Storage area for medical records = Observation MOI.6.3: Manual downtime regulation = Staff Interview Understanding the methods used to ensure compliance with information management standards is essential for maintaining data integrity and patient safety. 1120 / 1231 MOI 7.1 states that documentation improvement in the center is optional, based on available resources. True False MOI 7.1 states there _is_ a policy and procedure for clinical documentation improvement in the center. 1121 / 1231 If system failure occurs, MOI 6.2 allows that verbal instructions can be given in place of documented procedures. True False MOI 6.2 requires the policy and procedure describe the _manual procedures_ required to execute various activities in the event of system failure. 1122 / 1231 According to MOI 6.1, it is sufficient to only back up generated information annually as long as there is a detailed justification in the facility's policy. True False MOI 6.1 requires that the policy and procedure highlight how the generated information is stored and _regularly_ backed up. 1123 / 1231 According to MOI 5.3, non-completed medical records can remain mixed with completed records if they are clearly marked with a bright color tag. True False MOI 5.3 indicates the non-completed medical records are _clearly separated_ from completed ones. 1124 / 1231 MOI 5.1 requires that the dedicated and secure storage area for medical records must also be temperature controlled to preserve the integrity of paper records. True False MOI 5.1 states that there must be a dedicated and secure storage area for medical records but does not mention temperature control. 1125 / 1231 If an unapproved abbreviation is widely understood within the facility, then its use would still satisfy MOI 4.4. True False MOI 4.4 requires only _standardized_ and _approved_ abbreviations and symbols are used in medical records. 1126 / 1231 MOI 4.3 allows for physical erasures in a medical record if the author initials the change and provides a brief explanation nearby. True False MOI 4.3 indicates that entries written in error are not deleted or erased. Instead, a line is passed through the error text and dated, timed, and signed by the author. 1127 / 1231 If the policy identifies the staff that must destroy medical records, it satisfies MOI 4.1. True False MOI 4.1 requires that the policy identifies which staff can _write_ in the medical record, not which are involved in destroying it. 1128 / 1231 According to MOI 3.6, if patient allergies change frequently, it is permissible to document allergies in a separate, less secure attachment to their record. True False According to MOI 3.6, ensure patient allergies, prior adverse reactions, and chronic infections are confidentially documented and consistently displayed in a specified area of the patient's record. 1129 / 1231 If medical information is sufficient to safely manage the patient, continuity of medical care is not a relevant concern in MOI 3.5. True False According to MOI 3.5, medical record must contain updated information that is sufficient to safely manage and promote continuity of medical care. 1130 / 1231 According to MOI 3.3, the medical record's contents are to be arranged according to a non-standard process depending on the complexity of the patient history. True False MOI 3.3 specifies the medical record's contents are arranged according to a _standardized_ process. 1131 / 1231 MOI 3.1 requires that the physical space where each patient is seen has a unique medical record number. True False MOI 3.1 states that each patient has a unique medical record number. 1132 / 1231 According to MOI 2.2, a list of approved abbreviations and symbols is distributed in all patient care areas *except* when dealing with complex cases. True False MOI 2.2 states a list should be available in all patient care areas without exception. 1133 / 1231 MOI 2.1 states that staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that are consistent with the Ministry of Truth. True False MOI 2.1 indicates consistency with diagnosis and procedure codes consistent with the Ministry of _Health_. 1134 / 1231 If different documents have retention times in agreement with the Ministry of Health, the MOI 1.7 requirements are satisfied. True False MOI 1.7 requires the plan highlights the different documents retention time consistent with Ministry of Health rules and regulations. 1135 / 1231 MOI 1.5 states the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information. True False MOI 1.5 specifically says that the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information. 1136 / 1231 If the plan includes the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting then it automatically satisfies MOI 1.3. True False MOI 1.3 specifically states that the plan should include the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting. 1137 / 1231 MOI 1.1 requires that the plan highlights how patient geographical information is shared among medical and administrative staff. True False MOI 1.1 indicates that the plan highlights how patient _demographic_ and medical information is shared, not patient geographical information. 1138 / 1231 If the number of standards is 7, then the number of sub standards must always be 49 in the Management of Information chapter. True False With 7 standards, the number of sub standards is 28. There is no requirement that the one multiple is always related to the other. 1139 / 1231 The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board focuses exclusively on inpatient healthcare institution accreditation. True False The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board specifically deals with the accreditation of _ambulatory_ healthcare institutions. 1140 / 1231 According to MOI.6, the use of information technology requires appropriate policies and procedures. What is not addressed in the facility policy? Staff can demonstrate the manual procedure for the downtime regulation. The policy and procedure highlighted who the information is shared with. The policy and procedure highlight how the generated information is stored and regularly backed up. The policy and procedure describe the manual procedures required to execute the various activities in the event of system failure, maintenance or repair. The policy shares the how, but not the who. 1141 / 1231 According to MOI.5.3 about non-completed medical records, what protocol should healthcare facilities implement? Stored indiscriminately alongside other records to facilitate easy access and retrieval. Disposed of immediately to prevent the buildup of incomplete documentation. Forwarded to external agencies. Clearly separated from completed ones in the storage area and are completed within a timeframe that the organization defines. Clearly separated from completed ones and completed within a timeframe. 1142 / 1231 According to MOI.4.3, what is the recommended approach for correcting errors made in a patient's medical record? Erase or delete the original entry and replace it with the correct information. Use correction fluid to cover up the error and write the correct information on top. Draw a line across the error text, date, time, and sign the correction to maintain transparency and preserve the original information. Leave the error uncorrected and add a separate note explaining the mistake.
اختبار (CPHRM) الاعداد لاختبار الممارس المعتمد في إدارة مخاطر الرعاية الصحية
1 / 1231
Match the risk mitigation technique with its MOST accurate application within a healthcare setting:
Effective risk control requires the judicious application of an intertwined armamentarium of proactive and reactive tactics.
2 / 1231
Match each term with its corresponding legal or regulatory context relevant to insurance operations:
Operating compliantly hinges upon a robust comprehension of the regulatory and legislative milieu within which risk transfer instruments function.
3 / 1231
Match the appropriate element with its correct description pertaining to insurance policy construction:
A granular familiarity with policy architecture enables astute risk managers to discern coverage interstices.
4 / 1231
Match each risk financing technique with the appropriate characteristic:
Selecting the opportune risk financing approach necessitates a meticulous analysis of the organization’s risk profile and fiscal capacities.
5 / 1231
Match the term with its precise definition within the context of retrospective insurance rating:
A deep understanding of retrospective rating mechanisms is crucial for risk managers and insurance professionals seeking to optimize coverage and cost.
6 / 1231
Help choose a various reason in why your organization isn't successful
With a well rounded and managed selection of people helping your business, you're likely to manage it well.
7 / 1231
Couple financial risks, is important in understanding what is is coming..:?
Understanding the relationship between various losses, we can understand the various aspects which you can adjust in how the organization can mitigate the risk. . .
8 / 1231
Combine key components of reporting for high volume reporting where more is needed to track..
This step isn't difficult but a procedure in tracking the patterns in areas within the industry. .
9 / 1231
Combine the various steps where the losses can be determined to be managed and understood
Following the legal process in the healthcare settings is important in preventing losses in revenue.
10 / 1231
Match the following terms used in claims to their best suited description
Errors can happen anywhere and can even be prevented, but you have to be properly document the process
11 / 1231
12 / 1231
13 / 1231
Match up the following terms used for "Due Diligence", to avoid fraud and abuse claims:
Prevent errors related with leadership to promote financial responsibility in the healthcare business
14 / 1231
Match the following financial ratios to better make informed choice for best rates:
Financial strength can help you choose to be able to control your costs for years to come.
15 / 1231
Match the words used to describe the purpose of having an insurance policy to its description:
Each word describes an important component against the financial loss.
16 / 1231
Match following types of financial instruments listed to their definitions:
Bonds are used to ensure proper financial controls occur.
17 / 1231
Match the workers compensation to the financial benefit that the affected employee has :
Make sure that you've chosen the proper amount of benefit to provide to staff in your organization.
18 / 1231
Match types of Risk Retention techniques:
It is important to understand the breadth of risk retention techniques.
19 / 1231
Match the risk financing techniques with their description:
By determining your aversion to risk, you can create an approach that meets your needs.
20 / 1231
Match the following insurance policy types to its description:
Occurrence Coverage covers incidents, regardless of when you file a claim.
21 / 1231
Match the roles involved in insurance purchasing with their responsibility:
Knowing the roles of these individuals can assist in making more sound choices when determining your insurance needs.
22 / 1231
Match the following 'levels' of excess coverage with their descriptions:
Excess insurance layers sit over specific primary insurance to afford additional limits of liability.
23 / 1231
Match the characteristics of hard and soft insurance markets:
Insurance market conditions can significantly affect coverage availability and cost.
24 / 1231
Match the insurance terms with their appropriate definition:
Understanding these terms helps in making informed decisions about insurance coverage.
25 / 1231
Match Risk Categories (ERM) to their descriptions:
Categorizing risks helps organizations manage them more effectively.
26 / 1231
Match the following aspects of traditional risk management to modern Enterprise Risk Management (ERM):
ERM takes a broader, more integrated approach compared to traditional risk management.
27 / 1231
Match the following risk management terms with their definitions:
Understanding risk control techniques is crucial for minimizing potential losses and protecting organizational assets.
28 / 1231
There are four important aspects to any definition of Risk Management: Risk Indifference; Risk Appetite; Risk Evaluation; and Risk Monitoring.
There are four important aspects to any definition of Risk Management: Risk Identification, Risk Assessment, Risk Evaluation, and Risk Monitoring.
29 / 1231
From the point of view of minimizing losses then it's best that organizations should take a reactive approach with Traditional Risk management.
It is best to anticipate incidents before they occur and prevent them happening in the first instance. By contrast, traditional risk management doesn't always act in this way.
30 / 1231
Operational risk invariably relates to risks from workplace safety alone.
Operational risks are multi faceted. Including staff leadership and how well a healthcare organization is run. It's not uniquely workplace safety related.
31 / 1231
In insurance contracts, there is no relationship to third-party contracts.
A 'hold harmless agreement' which transfers liability to other parties for damages is a common clause in a contact. This helps to minimize the overall risk.
32 / 1231
Regarding insurance purchasing, agents invariably represent only the purchaser, advocating exclusively for their interests in coverage and pricing.
An insurance agent represents an insurance provider. Brokers are legally obligated to represent the purchaser. This means insurance agents need to balance the interest of the insurer and the purchaser.
33 / 1231
In determining the cost of risk, financial auditing expenses are classified uniquely under 'hazard' risks, precluding their allocation to operational or strategic risk assessments.
Financial auditing could be hazard or operational. But could form part of a risk assessment and so might also be strategic. So it's definitely not exclusively 'hazard' risks.
34 / 1231
Under a 'claims-made' insurance policy, coverage is triggered simply by the occurrence of the insured incident, irrespective of when the claim is actually reported to the insurer.
Claims-made means that the policy covers claims that are made during the term of the policy. The incident must both happen and be reported to the insurer during the policy term.
35 / 1231
The 'retention ratio' in risk financing techniques invariably entails the complete transfer of financial responsibility to a third-party insurer, nullifying any direct financial burden on the insured entity.
Risk retention implies the opposite. It indicates an acceptance of some level of financial or other responsibility for potential losses. Risk retention can take many forms, such as deductibles, self-insurance or no insurance.
36 / 1231
In traditional risk management, the assessment of risks heavily weighs speculative gains over potential losses, focusing predominantly on opportunities for financial upside.
Traditional risk management focuses predominantly on protecting financial resources and reputation. More specifically, avoiding and mitigating loses. By contrast, enterprise risk management also seeks opportunities.
37 / 1231
Enterprise Risk Management's primary objective is to enhance the volatility of an organization's strategic planning, disregarding the interconnectedness of risks and their potential synergistic effects.
ERM aims to holistically address risk, seeking to reduce (not enhance) volatility and recognizing interrelated and synergistic risks. This allows for more robust strategic planning and organizational resilience.
38 / 1231
Actuaries are experts specialized in evaluating risk, but are not generally consulted on insurance pricing.
Actuaries provide information about risk and dollar rates relating to these events, which all go hand in hand.
39 / 1231
Once an insurance policy is in place, the premiums cannot be changed, even with an increase in risk.
The cost and monthly premium is calculated depending on how high one takes the risk.
40 / 1231
It is not important to use different types of financial and insurance regulation.
Having different types of resources, you have more financial and regulatory power.
41 / 1231
It is more safe to be audited in certain risk rather than not at all.
Being ethical and transparent about medical records to prevent further lawsuits to occur.
42 / 1231
It's common practice to utilize an older company, from sometime in the 1970s, for financial protection.
1970s indicates where the practice of financial management was.
43 / 1231
The overall number rating is more important if an organization is in-prevention or non preventable risk.
It is important to rank risk.
44 / 1231
Having all C-suite at an organization with no prior knowledge in risk management decisions allows for a more diverse risk.
Need experience executives.
45 / 1231
It is more important to evaluate a broker than the actual insurance policy
It is equally important because they are both critical.
46 / 1231
It is crucial for insurance departments to get licensed to make claims
Licensure process is for insurance to approve business and company operation.
47 / 1231
There is no need for retroactive date when coverage is claims made.
When there is effective period for date of coverage for claims-made.
48 / 1231
A key advantage of a 'conceptual proposal' is the speed. Using the conceptual approach will generate, overall, faster results and more streamlined responses.
The text indicates that in a conceptual approach factors _other_ than cost are brought into play.
49 / 1231
In the context of insurance, 'Incurred But Not Reported' (IBNR) refers to losses related to property damage.
IBNR refers to claims that have occurred but have not yet been reported to the insurance company. It is not directly related or relegated to property damage.
50 / 1231
The data listed, does _not_, generally need to be in both actuaries, claims, finance, and the legal department; instead, the claim department is supposed to receive that information.
In general, actuaries work close with those of claim, finance or legal department.
51 / 1231
A key element of a 'market proposal' for insurance purchasing is that broker selection depends primarily on cost and services, rather than broker experience.
In a more straight forward (market) approach, the risk management would evaluate cost and service proposals, but likely not evaluate the broker's background otherwise.
52 / 1231
The "stop-loss" method is designed to determine what point of cost containment provides maximal value, at no cost, and with high specificity.
There was no indication at when stop-loss should be used, or that "stop-loss" includes determination maximal specificity at no cost.
53 / 1231
Risk management is a static process that does not require continuous monitoring or updates.
Effective risk management involves continuous monitoring, evaluation, and adaptation of strategies to address evolving risks.
54 / 1231
Operational risks are primarily related to external factors like market competition.
Operational risks stem from internal processes, systems, and human factors within the organization, rather than external market forces.
55 / 1231
A self-insurance trust provides more flexible spending options for funds compared to other arrangements.
Self-insurance trusts lack flexibility, designating funds soley for a the paying of losses.
56 / 1231
To obtain insights into an organization's total cost of risk, it is unnecessary to consider uninsured losses.
Uninsured losses are an important component when calculating total cost of risk.
57 / 1231
In a 'claims-made' insurance policy, coverage is determined solely by when the incident occurred, regardless of when the claim is reported.
With the claim made approach, the claim must be reported, in addition to other requirements.
58 / 1231
ISO 31000 is explicitly mentioned as a required compliance standard for healthcare risk management in the provided materials.
While ISO 31000 is a recognized standard for risk management, its explicit requirement for healthcare organizations is not mentioned.
59 / 1231
A company can transfer the financial burden but NOT necessarily the ultimate legal responsibility for losses.
Organization can transfer the financial burden of losses but not necessarily the ultimate legal responsibility for losses
60 / 1231
Risk Control involves addressing financial losses after they occur.
Risk Control: prevent losses before occur, reduce severity if occur Risk Financing: manages financial aspect of loss after it occurs
61 / 1231
In risk management, 'insurance risk' refers to the potential harm a company could suffer due to fluctuating insurance rates.
The text indicates that strict risk avoidance philosophy is more limited in focus and reflective of insurance risk, regarding the minimisation of potential financial loss.
62 / 1231
Risk management is primarily handled by a single department within an organization.
Effective risk management requires the involvement of various departments and levels within an organization, not just a single department.
63 / 1231
A key goal of enterprise risk management is to increase uncertainty to promote innovation.
Enterprise risk management seeks to reduce uncertainty and process variability, in order to promote patient safety.
64 / 1231
An insurance policy's exclusions define what the policy _will_ cover under specific circumstances.
Exclusions define what the insurer _will not_ cover. They outline situations or events that are not protected under the policy.
65 / 1231
Strategic risks, unlike financial risks, are considered outside the scope of Enterprise Risk Management.
Enterprise Risk Management is supposed to include risk categories such as _strategic_, financial, legal and regularity, operational, hazard, as well as others.
66 / 1231
The overarching goal of modern risk management is to provide the least amount of protection, thus maximizing profits at the expense of patient safety.
While financial considerations are a factor, modern risk management is focused on prevention, mitigating negative consequences to minimize the adverse effects of accidental losses upon an organization.
67 / 1231
Traditional risk management encourages open communication with patients and their families regarding findings after an adverse event.
Traditional risk management was described as keeping 'patients in the dark' about risk management and occurrence reporting. It stated to 'be vague about findings'.
68 / 1231
A 'hard' insurance market is defined by easily accessible and affordable coverage options.
Hard markets are characterized by stricter underwriting standards, increased premiums and less available liability converge.
69 / 1231
An insurance policy's 'declarations page' typically includes the insured's claims history.
The declarations page primarily outlines policy details like the insured's name, covered items, and policy limits—not claims history.
70 / 1231
A 'potentially compensable event' (PCE) is an occurrence that is guaranteed to result in a lawsuit.
A potentially compensable event is one that _might_ lead to a lawsuit or claim, but it is not a certainty.
71 / 1231
In the context of risk management, 'transfer' refers to shifting the financial burden of risk to another party.
Risk transfer involves strategies such as insurance to pass the financial responsibility of potential losses to another entity.
72 / 1231
Incident reporting should focus solely on serious occurrences, ignoring minor events.
Incident reporting includes and require all safety incidents to be reported, not just serious ones, to identify potential risks and improve safety measures.
73 / 1231
The ultimate purpose of Risk Management is to eliminate all potential harm.
Harm is defined as unintended physical injury resulting from or contributed to by medical car that requires additional monitoring, treatment, or hospitalization, or that result in death.
74 / 1231
Traditional Risk Management (TRM) and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) are essentially the same thing.
TRM and ERM differ significantly, with ERM taking a more holistic and proactive approach compared to TRM's reactive focus.
75 / 1231
Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) seeks to manage risks across the entire organization.
ERM is defined as an approach for addressing risk from all sources across and beyond the organization.
76 / 1231
According to the presentation, strategic planning is not within the scope of Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi's expertise.
Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi's listed credentials include expertise in strategic planning and KPI practitioner, according to the slide.
77 / 1231
Risk management in healthcare primarily addresses potential financial gains.
Risk management in healthcare focuses on mitigating undesirable outcomes and potential negative impacts on patients or personnel, not financial gains.
78 / 1231
An organization is conducting due diligence on potential insurance brokers. Beyond standard qualifications and experience, what *MOST* accurately demonstrates their capacity to develop innovative risk financing solutions tailored to their organizational profile?
Option C indicates the broker’s analytical abilities, relationships, and capabilities to design a program. This option displays the details for all plans and reviews.
79 / 1231
What is the *MOST* critical distinction between a claims-made and an occurrence insurance policy from a long-term risk management perspective?
Under claims-made, you need to find that a reported event occurred under the window. An occurrence, is a contract when you leave.
80 / 1231
Suppose a hospital implements a new patient safety protocol aimed at reducing surgical site infections (SSIs). Which quantitative metric would *BEST* reflect the efficacy of this risk control technique?
Option 'D' is the most concrete because it shows the number of SSI's on a level, which directly reflects the effectiveness of the new program for the procedures completed.
81 / 1231
Under a “retrospective rating” plan, what does it *MOST* directly indicate of the final premium determination at the end of the policy period?
It's used for retrospective rating, premiums rely heavily under losses, making it the most important factor. This is an additional review of accounting issues
82 / 1231
If an insurance company references IBNR (Incurred But Not Reported) in their actuarial reports, what does this *MOST* accurately suggest regarding their estimation of total liabilities?
IBNR represents the estimated liability for claims that have already occurred but haven't yet been reported to the insurance company, reflecting a future cost.
83 / 1231
In a healthcare system characterized by high operational complexity and interdependence, what is *MOST* critical to establishing a robust and proactively managed risk management framework?
Option is correct because effective risk management requires strategic alignment, that enables a structured and consistent approach to achieve organizational objectives.
84 / 1231
A large academic medical center is considering implementing a 'blended risk transfer/retention' strategy, utilizing both a high-deductible insurance policy and a captive insurer. What are the *MOST* important factors the CFO needs to evaluate to confirm the economic viability of that plan?
The synergistic effects plus the actuarial review are the most important because those help show data and information before a decision has been made. This data also helps with being within good numbers.
85 / 1231
When evaluating a claims-made insurance policy, what are the *MOST* critical considerations regarding 'nose coverage' (prior acts coverage) and 'tail coverage' (extended reporting period) a risk manager should analyze?
Option C is correct because understanding the interplay between the retroactive date and potential gaps in coverage requires a thorough risk manager assessment.
86 / 1231
An integrated delivery network (IDN) is contemplating shifting from a traditional insurance model toward a risk retention strategy involving a captive insurer. What *critical* prerequisite must be satisfied to ensure the economic viability and regulatory compliance of this captive?
Option 'B' is correct. Actuarial soundness is not just about projected savings but critically involves rigorously assessing the IDN’s capacity to meet all potential obligations, even in extreme scenarios. This protects the IDN from insolvency and assures regulators.
87 / 1231
In a "hard insurance market", what is a likely outcome for insurance buyers?
In a 'hard market,' insurers tend to reduce the amount of coverage and buyers pay more.
88 / 1231
Given a healthcare organization with a mature ERM program, which metric would *MOST* comprehensively reflect the program's efficacy in fortifying resilience against systemic shocks, such as pandemics?
Option 'C' is correct because it considers both the achievement of strategic objectives and the reduction in process variability, providing a more holistic measure of the ERM program's impact on organizational resilience.
89 / 1231
What action best helps create steps and solutions for listed issues?
A list helps create a guide to be followed for support.
90 / 1231
In a risk-financing context, what does “cost certainty” *MOST* directly imply for an organization?
Cost certainty implies an ability to accurately forecast and budget for risk-related expenses, facilitating financial planning and stability.
91 / 1231
How do economic conditions affect risk transfer/insurance plans?
To allow less loss, the agency must see how the economy changes, and where the plan is now.
92 / 1231
What type of policy would be used at 2 different points to insure 2 groups of physicians, where one group had past coverage and one group is about to set up new coverage:
Nose coverage provides coverage for known past incidents under current options. This allows both plans to proceed while knowing what/data exist.
93 / 1231
What is the *MOST* complete and accurate definition of an insurance policy's 'declarations page'?
It provides a concise summary of the essential elements of the insurance coverage.
94 / 1231
What is the *primary* role of an actuary in the context of healthcare risk management and insurance?
An actuary assesses financial risk, estimates future losses, and ensures financial stability.
95 / 1231
How does an 'unfunded loss reserve' function within risk retention?
An 'unfunded loss reserve' represents surplus earmarked as a potential liability, without a dedicated and legally separate account.
96 / 1231
Which factor would likely be the *MOST* influential for a hospital when deciding between a traditional insurance plan and a self-insured retention (SIR) plan?
Financial capacity is key; self-insurance means the hospital directly bears risks and must have sufficient funds to cover potential losses.
97 / 1231
Under a "claims-made" insurance policy, what action is critical for coverage if an incident occurs near the end of the policy term?
Under a “claims-made” policy, requesting and paying for an extended reporting period (tail coverage) is necessary to ensure that claims made after the policy's expiration for incidents that occurred during the policy term are still covered.
98 / 1231
To ensure well covered, well support and better support, which option allows one to stay in-line?
Better option allows one to stay in-line when changing plans and with better support.
99 / 1231
Which attribute should a business value when looking for a new broker?
Quality broker has expert in health care.
100 / 1231
What is meant when an insurance provider cites 'Nose Coverage'?
"Nose Coverage" deals with historical incidents.
101 / 1231
With what is "cost certainty" best associated within a risk financing context?
"cost certainty" financial accountability fixed upfront.
102 / 1231
Under an insurance arrangement, what primarily motivates using actuarial reviews?
Actuarial reviews gauge hazard probabilities.
103 / 1231
What is the goal of Risk Financing techniques used in risk management?
Risk financing targets the availability of resources to address losses.
104 / 1231
What is a _claims-made_ insurance policy most distinguished for?
Claims-made relates to within the agreement term.
105 / 1231
Which insurance sector is 'HMO/Capitation stop loss' most pertinent to?
"HMO/Capitation stop loss" insurance is medical.
106 / 1231
Within insurance policies, what signifies the 'declarations page'?
"Declarations Page" summarizes critical data.
107 / 1231
Under insurance policies incorporating a 'deductible', who bears the responsibility for covering expenses up to the deductible amount?
deductibles are insured part.
108 / 1231
What fundamentally defines 'Insurance' in the context of risk transfer?
Insurance functions to transfer money.
109 / 1231
In the domain of insurance, what is a 'captive insurer' most akin to?
Captive insurers are closely tied to the insured.
110 / 1231
Which option accurately defines 'current expensing of losses' within Risk Retention?
"Current Expensing of Losses" relates to available capital.
111 / 1231
How do contracts containing hold-harmless agreements function under risk control techniques?
"Hold Harmless Agreement" contracts assign responsibilities.
112 / 1231
What is the main function of 'Loss Prevention' as a risk control technique?
"Loss Prevention" targets lowering the frequency of losses.
113 / 1231
In the context of ERM goals, what does 'reducing uncertainty and process variability' primarily aim to achieve?
Reducing uncertainty means minimizing deviation.
114 / 1231
Which viewpoint accurately characterizes Risk Avoidance as a risk control technique?
Risk avoidance is eliminating risks.
115 / 1231
What is the primary difference in focus between traditional and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)?
ERM addresses a wider range of risks than TRM.
116 / 1231
What distinguishes the 'Strategic' category of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) risk categories?
Strategic risks directly affect an organization's success.
117 / 1231
In traditional risk management, what is a common approach to handling risk?
Traditional Risk Management employs risk avoidance.
118 / 1231
According to a legal case, what 3 parts need to have those to be legal and to hold the standards (select all that apply)?
Determining the acceptable state.; Assessment the legal steps only.; Discovering the facts.
119 / 1231
In the insurance world, what would someone need to understand what they do?
There to be the most correct and key person to help in correct format and point when running steps there for the detail to work with these.
120 / 1231
Which of the following is a good area for support?
Always ensure those steps can arrive and run better on those parts.
121 / 1231
According to the plan, what might you expect to see as a benefit from coverage Insurance?
The help can be set in place and provide a value with great output.
122 / 1231
During self insurance (credit risk), how should funds function under what?
This credit should have access to the good for them to use the best type with it for actions.
123 / 1231
The part of your contract that defines the steps involved as best and all.
The insuring agreements define what's involved.
124 / 1231
An organization fails to monitor slippery floor. The family pushing patient sues.
According to the type of captive funded risk. It falls under unintentional.
125 / 1231
If a company wanted a plan in which they pay per individual losses, self insurance, how often do they expect those pay?
The process is set and when they occur they charge off losses as cash with no extra payments.
126 / 1231
Under direct insurance, what is the purpose of having 'excess insurance'?
Having excess insurance helps with affording additional liability coverage above current insurance.
127 / 1231
How do risk reduction techniques aim to reduce or mitigate a loss?
Risk reduction techniques will either reduce or mitigate a loss.
128 / 1231
Which of the following exposures does NOT belong under third party insurance coverage?
Umbrella or Excesses follow and sit over any coverage. You need to verify what is under that Umbrella/Excess policy.
129 / 1231
Which of the following actions is most aligned with the use of 'risk control' after considering Risk Identification and before Risk Financing?
Risk Control, under Risk Treatments, has a goal to stop losses from ever occurring or lessen the severity of existing potential events.
130 / 1231
If all was in place for steps, what then is required?
The proper step was those with the most key to assist.
131 / 1231
When working with a contract that requires insurance, what needs to be considered first?
That data has to show for the data has been done or fixed.
132 / 1231
To follow one of the steps for help and action, what needs to be done before the correct actions arrive?
Make sure before action, the process and data are present and accounted for.
133 / 1231
If an agency wanted to retain less loss exposure and potentially look to transfer more to the insurance company, should they look to be in more of a **_soft_** market or a **_hard_** market?
During a soft market, the premium rates are lowered, and there is broader market coverage.
134 / 1231
If a plan has high value, what makes them important to run?
Running all those aspects helps the key part and have a better life and more stable core group.
135 / 1231
When a plan does not follow what has been set, what then should occur?
All changes need to run smoothly to continue plans.
136 / 1231
All steps and changes need well- what?
The core value of all these parts should be that way going forward in time.
137 / 1231
What are four steps that can help and be the correct steps?
This was based on the need to follow and ensure this process runs as intended.
138 / 1231
Depending on Underwriter to account to follow the data provided to be correct
The correct plans have all those options and more to improve the base.
139 / 1231
Most steps require which thing from the brokers?
The data to have the correct changes to work, run, and follow.
140 / 1231
According to Insurance groups, what is the most important for plans?
This allows all sides to have their opinions valued; and that information is followed.
141 / 1231
If a report mentions the topic 'Nose Coverage' what might it mention?
Those listed under nose are a potential, and if one has this as the value, to account for those times.
142 / 1231
When are the costs under retro come?
The steps and process for a timeline, to help what can occur.
143 / 1231
When changing providers to new medical care. Which option allows one to stay in-line and with better support?
Maintaining those aspects helps one continue a smooth transition between transfers and even more to keep track of incidents.
144 / 1231
Once an issue has been listed, what best helps guide steps and potential solutions for these incidents?
The claims made coverage details data related to the correct steps, and what needs to be done to take those steps.
145 / 1231
The part of your contract that defines the most standard data for insurance is?
Those that are related to standards fall under Standard Elements.
146 / 1231
What role helps with data to be calculated under actuarial use?
The information allows all parts to run with a better form and function and help see if data has issues.
147 / 1231
When examining professional liability, which one of these has the potential to add more data?
The Previous Information has potential and even allows some extra data related to insurance.
148 / 1231
What is the overall goal of risk financing?
The main goal of risk financing is generating funds to pay for all losses that risk control does not entirely prevent.
149 / 1231
According to one risk control technique, what would one do if a risk has been determined to be outside of all acceptable safety measures?
According to risk management, risk avoidance would mean never undertaking risks that have been determined to be outside of acceptable parameters.
150 / 1231
What must someone provide to receive payment on their insurance policy?
One must provide a commitment to pay to receive money if a party suffers a type of loss listed in their agreement.
151 / 1231
Under insurance non-insurance, what is an important thing to find under these services?
Under the contract where one party agrees to have the other transfer or agree to pay the payments set in motion.
152 / 1231
With insurance to be considered, one must ensure:
Insurance is based on the existence of if all aspects of the plan fall under legal standards.
153 / 1231
Match the type of steps with how to manage:
154 / 1231
Match the follow to its description to a good leadership
Great minds think alike, be open to growth.
155 / 1231
Which of these factors contributed to the evolution of healthcare risk management in the 1970s?
Rising insurance premiums was a key motivator in the movement towards formal risk management.
156 / 1231
What is the primary aim of risk management?
Effective risk management seeks to minimize the impact and frequency of negative occurrences.
157 / 1231
According to the content, what is the definition of 'harm' in the context of healthcare risk management?
Harm is defined as unintended physical injury resulting from medical treatment that requires intervention or results in negative outcomes.
158 / 1231
What is the focus of traditional risk management in healthcare?
Traditional risk management primarily focuses on strict risk avoidance as it relates to insurance concerns.
159 / 1231
The step of 'Treatment' in Risk Management has goals to achieve which of the following choices?
The goal of 'Treatment' in the Risk Management Process has goals to examine, select, and implement alternative risk treatments.
160 / 1231
In risk ranking, after you identify the level and the likelihood of a certain step. What is next when performing a risk ranking calculation?
In the risk ranking process, it is important to multiply the impact assessment with the likelihood assessment for each risk, then reference the product against a range of values.
161 / 1231
What is the primary objective of reporting incidents in healthcare risk management?
Incident reporting aims to standardize actions and data, ensuring consistent and reliable responses to deviations from expected healthcare procedures.
162 / 1231
Which of the following methods is considered a 'formal' approach to risk identification?
Formal methods, such as incident reporting, involve structured processes for identifying and documenting potential risks.
163 / 1231
During risk identification, what is the purpose of determining the 'type of value exposed to loss'?
Identifying the type of value at risk helps to characterize what could be lost, guiding the selection of appropriate risk management techniques.
164 / 1231
What is the purpose of 'monitoring' in the ERM decision-making process?
Monitoring is crucial to reassess the risk landscape and to adapt risk management techniques as needed, ensuring continuous effectiveness.
165 / 1231
How does Enterprise Risk Management engage stakeholders compared to Traditional Risk Management?
Enterprise Risk Management integrates input from clinicians and staff, whereas traditional risk management centers around decisions made by the board and C-suite.
166 / 1231
What is the primary focus of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) regarding risk?
ERM aims to address risks comprehensively, considering all potential sources both internal and external to the organization.
167 / 1231
Which is one of the key goals of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) in healthcare?
ERM seeks to prioritize patient safety through the implementation of effective risk management strategies.
168 / 1231
In the context of healthcare risk management, what does the term 'hazard' primarily refer to?
A hazard is a condition that elevates the possibility of losses, such as inadequate staffing or faulty equipment.
169 / 1231
What is the ultimate goal of the risk management process?
The risk management process focuses on making decisions that reduce the potential for accidental losses to negatively impact the organization.
170 / 1231
What is considered the primary objective of traditional risk management?
Traditional risk management places a high priority on safeguarding the organization's financial stability and public image.
171 / 1231
What would be one be required to do know all is in placed?
Focusing on reporting can be key.
172 / 1231
To create a standard or agreement which of the following needs to occur or be in order to manage this?
The focus is to have it reported correctly.
173 / 1231
What step involves finding what is the core basis for each type from this point ?
Its what occurs or what the claims can be for.
174 / 1231
What does one need to be well covered?
Knowing the definition for coverage is the base before getting involved.
175 / 1231
What to retain less a loss exposure and what action might you have to take under this market shift ?
You are to understand the dynamics and to reduce costs or make better decisions
176 / 1231
Under typical insurance policy, what is the date where all records have been recorded and updated for the insurnace company?
All retro ratings are accounted for at this date.
177 / 1231
What is the defintion or reference to for Retractive Rate?
To account premium loss, with adjusting after loss.
178 / 1231
Which best describes the point/expertise of Underwriter?
Someone to evaluate or analyze and value and set for an insurance.
179 / 1231
Which members are required for Insurance?
Underwriters and the claims examiner.
180 / 1231
How are a Broker and Agent different?
Agents and brokers represent parties.
181 / 1231
Which is a key attribute to find when hiring a new broker?
Availability, health care management skills, and communication are core skills to look for.
182 / 1231
During a **_soft_** insurance market which option is more possible?
With there comes with easier underwriting and high coverage options.
183 / 1231
What factors define drafting specification coverage?
Drafting coverage specifications, one must review their insurance carriers and evaluate
184 / 1231
Why is there a shift occurring from traditional risk management to enterprise risk management?
The shift from traditional to enterprise risk management is influenced by new healthcare models and increased regulation.
185 / 1231
Which of the following steps is part of the process for ERM as a Decision-Making Process?
Continuously monitoring and adjusting risk handling techniques ensures the organization remains adaptable and effective.
186 / 1231
What is the first step in the risk management process?
Identifying and analyzing what an organization is exposed to sets the stage for managing the risks it faces.
187 / 1231
Incident reports serve as a _cornerstone_ to which one of the following concepts?
Incident reports are the cornerstone of a health care risk management program.
188 / 1231
What is the goal of providing Risk Management Training?
Develop corrective action.
189 / 1231
When classifying exposures, what are the three mentioned exposure types?
The process for classifying exposures, are property, net income, and liability.
190 / 1231
Which one of the following methods is for the _treatment_ of an exposure using risk management techniques?
There are a number of ways of treating the exposure through risk management techniques such as, Risk control
191 / 1231
What is the primary goal of risk financing?
Risk financing involves all ways of generating funds to pay for unavoidable losses.
192 / 1231
What is the distinction between risk control and risk financing?
Risk control acts to reduce the negative effect of a risk, and risk financing manages the loss after it occurs.
193 / 1231
What is meant by 'unfunded loss reserve' in the context of risk financing?
An unfunded loss reserve is an accounting method that show potential, segregating future value to compensate.
194 / 1231
What is the purpose of risk retention groups?
Risk retention groups help provide liability converge to related members.
195 / 1231
Which type of insurance provides payment if a party suffers a type of loss listed in their agreement?
With indemnity insurances, one party agres ti pay the other a specified amount for damages.
196 / 1231
What is the meaning on Insurance?
An insurance system provies insurance with a company, so if that customer incurs losses they get reimbursted.
197 / 1231
What is a direct function that financial Guarantees Provide?
Financial garuntees provides function as a contract guarentee, not just a financial compensation.
198 / 1231
Which of the following steps is the primary focus of regulation of insurance at the state level?
Regulations of insurances have power over their departments, overseeing their policy implementation and handling complaints.
199 / 1231
What does 'current expensing of losses' refer to in risk retention?
Current expensing of losses means paying for those losses out of the revenue available.
200 / 1231
According to ASHRM's definition, what does ERM in healthcare promote?
ERM aims to protect and create value by skillfully managing risks and uncertainties across the organization.
201 / 1231
What is the primary difference between Traditional Risk Management (TRM) and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) in terms of their focus?
ERM takes a forward-thinking approach to risk management, whereas traditional methods are more geared toward responding to specific incidents.
202 / 1231
Which of the following accurately describes Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)?
Enterprise Risk Management looks at the whole picture of risk and how individual risks can impact other parts of the organization.
203 / 1231
Match how to prepare your patient for disclosure with its best practice:
204 / 1231
Match the term to reasons patients may need some support:
205 / 1231
Match the item from column A with its definition in column B:
Understanding what it takes leads to better choices.
206 / 1231
Match the description with where it most applies:
These organizations are designed to improve healthcare, and are led to safety.
207 / 1231
Match the following terms related to patient family relations:
Building better care in the culture of all levels.
208 / 1231
Match the following terms with their healthcare organization:
Learning the players in the healthcare world sets those CPHRM members above.
209 / 1231
Match the question for what we do NOT want:
The question in the problem to fix it.
210 / 1231
Match the item from the question to reason for decline in those standards:
Understanding the best way for improvement is the question.
211 / 1231
Match the step with the importance of the steps to take:
Always care about patient relations.
212 / 1231
Match the statement made to describe what kind of event it is:
Understanding the difference between types of events is key for healthcare.
213 / 1231
Match the statement with what is the key goal:
Team building helps improve productivity and overall safety within healthcare.
214 / 1231
Match the type of maturity and safety:
215 / 1231
Match the types of steps with managing medical errors:
Important in healthcare.
216 / 1231
Match the following with their definitions:
Important to help keep track.
217 / 1231
Match the following phrases to examples of what can cause them:
It comes and goes.
218 / 1231
Match safety culture to its correct definition:
It's a critical part of keeping a healthcare team.
219 / 1231
Match the definition to type of barriers:
There is always a key role for healthcare.
220 / 1231
Match the phases with human reactions to medical errors:
Healthcare professionals need to know how to respond.
221 / 1231
Match the item to the reasons of patient safety:
By understanding, we have the ability to take responsible action.
222 / 1231
Match the term used for patient relations:
This brings high importance to Healthcare Organization world.
223 / 1231
Match the item found in patient safety to its definition:
Those items are critical to healthcare.
224 / 1231
Match the term to its meaning:
Using work tools in the workplace is critical to healthcare.
225 / 1231
Match the term to where errors are made.
Both can contribute to medical errors.
226 / 1231
Match the domains of the CPHRM Examination content to its purpose:
Those who become a CPHRM have mastered these elements in healthcare risk-management.
227 / 1231
Match the description with Healthcare Organizations in high reliability.
This model lists key components of Healthcare organizations in high reliability.
228 / 1231
Associate the step with Applying to take the CPHRM examination.
The CPHRM examinations for test centers outside the United States may be available online or by phone.
229 / 1231
Match the following study tools with their intended use in CPHRM Examination Prep:
The CPHRM Exam is offered by the American Hospital Association.
230 / 1231
Match the clinical area to the type of error related to the surgical department:
`Res Ipsa Loquitur` is when negligence is so clear that it speaks for itself.
231 / 1231
Match the following concepts with the goals of a Just Culture:
A Just Culture aims to balance accountability with a supportive environment for reporting and learning from errors.
232 / 1231
Match the human factors to how they contribute to medical errors:
Human factors play a significant role in medical errors, impacting decision-making and communication.
233 / 1231
Match the following elements with the steps of a Root Cause Analysis (RCA):
Root cause analysis helps identify not just what happened, but why it happened, to prevent recurrence.
234 / 1231
Match the following terms with their definitions related to patient safety:
Understanding the difference between these terms is crucial for effective risk management and reporting in healthcare.
235 / 1231
While healthcare providers have a duty to refrain from professional negligence, patients/consumers equally have a duty to refrain from negligently exposing themselves to harm.
Individuals have duty to refrain from negligently exposing themselves to harm. Patients have rights, but also resposibilities.
236 / 1231
In a FMEA, after identifying the failure of a potential treatment you can assume the effect on the patient and that it will result in minimal impact.
That is a dangerous action and a critical error may develop.
237 / 1231
When performing a sentinel event review, it is okay to have only people directly involved included on the team as that is all that is needed.
For a sentinel event, you need a team. It is multidisciplinary and from all areas of your facility.
238 / 1231
There are never incentives for a nurse to not report something because nurses want to do a good job always.
There are some incentives for a nurse to not report something.
239 / 1231
An enforceable standard of care is what determines negligence.
Enforceable standard of care is what determines negligence.
240 / 1231
Use of data should be limited when first developing a program because they are not important at that time.
You should use all data available to you, they are always important.
241 / 1231
The 'To Err is Human' report highlighted that the biggest challenge is writing good rules.
Actually the biggest challenge is to establish a 'just culture.’
242 / 1231
Conducting a root cause analysis is primarily valuable for identifying who is responsible for an error.
Root cause analysis is important for finding out what caused an event in order that it can never happen again.
243 / 1231
A patient who had surgery on the wrong body part would be a sentinel event.
Operating on the wrong body part fits Joint Commision defintion. The patient experienced harm.
244 / 1231
The Joint Commission's Sentinel Event Policy primarily focuses on punishing negligent staff.
Instead, they help you to solve problems.
245 / 1231
When a sentinel event happens, it does not require a report.
When there is a sentinel event, it should be volunterly reported.
246 / 1231
One of the critical steps in the RCA process is ensuring there was a strong leader involved with the mistake.
Rather they were trying to analyze and to solve problems.
247 / 1231
Adverse events always indicate a need for disciplinary action.
Sometimes adverse events need changes in the processes or procedures.
248 / 1231
Family members can serve as effective and reliable interpreters.
Use professional interpreters when communicating with the patient.
249 / 1231
In the Swiss Cheese Model, the active failures are the holes in the model.
Latent failures or conditions are represented by holes in the Swiss cheese model.
250 / 1231
In the context of managing reliability, identifying and addressing active failures is sufficient for preventing incidents.
Both active and latent failures should are looked into in the context of incidents management and high reliability.
251 / 1231
Redesigning a system is a solution for eliminating 'human error'.
One response or 'solution' is to redesign the system; however, other solutions such as consoling/coahing the worker are also options.
252 / 1231
Applying the correct rule consistently, even if the outcome is adverse, indicates a process is at the 'risk behavior' level.
Applying the correct rule consistently indicates a well managed process; however, the description fits 'human error' more accurately. 'Risk behavior' implies a conscious decision to deviate, while in human error correct rules are followed but mistakes occur.
253 / 1231
A Just Culture emphasizes reliance on short-term memory to promote quick decision-making.
A Just Culture does not emphasize reliance on short term memory. Instead, writing things down is encouraged.
254 / 1231
A key component of a High-Reliability Organization is a flattened hierarchy to promote open communication.
Flattened hierarchy promotes open communication for effective team-like operations.
255 / 1231
One of the principles of HROs is to always simplify complex problems.
HRO's are complex, so simplifying is a trap and avoiding overly simple explanations is critical.
256 / 1231
One key attribute of High Reliability Organizations (HROs) is their ability to eliminate all sources of risk.
High Reliability Organizations are systems without mistakes over long periods of time, they are not completely risk free.
257 / 1231
In a 'Just Culture,' only reckless behavior and not systemic failings are addressed.
In 'Just Culture,' systematic failings as well as reckless behavior are addressed.
258 / 1231
In 'Just Culture,' the primary aim is to punish individuals for human error to promote accountability.
Just Culture aims to not punishment for human error.
259 / 1231
In a healthcare setting, SBAR primarily functions as an analytical tool.
In a healthcare SBAR acts a communication tool.
260 / 1231
When treating a patient who speaks a different language, direct use of family members is the best way to assure correct interpreting.
It is better use professional interpreters when communicating with the patient.
261 / 1231
In healthcare, the term 'high-risk clinical areas' exclusively refers to surgical units.
High-risk clinical areas include but are not limited to obstetrics, emergency, and radiology departments.
262 / 1231
The Patient Safety domain accounts for 50% of the CPHRM exam's content.
The Patient Safety domain accounts for 25% of the CPHRM exam's content.
263 / 1231
In exam answering strategies, it's recommended to initially focus on the answers that seem plausible at first glance.
The recommendation is to make predictions as you read the question followed by eliminating answers.
264 / 1231
An 'extreme phrase' in an exam question always signals a true statement.
Extreme phrases should invite closer inspection and may signal a false statement and not always the opposite.
265 / 1231
For CPHRM renewal, successful re-examination requires payment of a renewal fee.
If renewing through re-examination, no renewal fee is required.
266 / 1231
The "Application" domain in the CPHRM exam assesses the ability to recall specific information.
The "Application" domain assesses the ability to apply knowledge to new or changing situations. The "Recall" domain focuses on recognising specific information.
267 / 1231
To be eligible for the CPHRM, candidates must have at least a master's degree.
A BA degree or higher is sufficient. Candidates must also have other qualifications to be eligible for the CPHRM.
268 / 1231
Risk managers primarily focus on financial risks within healthcare organizations.
Risk managers deal with prevention, reduction, and control of loss which impact patients, visitors, physicians and other colleagues.
269 / 1231
AMP/PSI administers the CPHRM examination.
AMP/PSI is responsible for administering the CPHRM exam.
270 / 1231
The CPHRM exam is administered in 3 hours.
The CPHRM exam is completed in 2 hours.
271 / 1231
The CPHRM exam consists of seven content domains.
The CPHRM exam is divided into five content domains.
272 / 1231
A passing score on the CPHRM exam results in the award of a certificate.
Passing the CPHRM exam results in a credential, not a certificate.
273 / 1231
The CPHRM examination includes both scored and pre-test questions.
The CPHRM examination includes 110 multiple-choice questions, where 100 are scored and 10 are pre-test questions.
274 / 1231
During which stage is most important for communication within a process of a sentinel event?
A good sentinel event follows a great Root cause; action is needed!
275 / 1231
What causes Medical errors?
Hospitals require professional communication; it improves patient health.
276 / 1231
For a Patient Safety Organization (PSO), can?
A PSO can engage with another PSO with the right candidate.
277 / 1231
Once a process receives discovery, what improves it in an organization?
When doing discovery, ‘have empathy’ with the patient during the process.
278 / 1231
What is "most feared by" safety program candidates?
The most feared activity is that staff members tell what occurred.
279 / 1231
To improve bedside report with shift changes, which assist?
Hospitals require a clear report with a SBAR assists to understand quickly.
280 / 1231
Select the correct selection for Human Factors.
By doing this, it lowers the issues to individuals when an event occurs, it helps improve the process.
281 / 1231
If a client is having a team create "Solutions for Safety", what is something the group must avoid?
When looking into improvement, the client must avoid anything that causes blame.
282 / 1231
Active failures are different from latent failures, in which?
Active errors are apparent to those harmed.
283 / 1231
When building the program, what is important?
The building that is most important follows what patients feel.
284 / 1231
How can hospitals meet the challenge to improve practices for its customers who now understand more?
Improve learning.
285 / 1231
What is a "high" attribute related to the team?
Hospitals look to improve as an attribute.
286 / 1231
According to the CPHRM certification guide, high-risk clinical specialties has led to which area?
The answer is Obstetrics.
287 / 1231
Prior to recommending a new safety initiative, a consultant must:
Consultants must first get the lay of the land.
288 / 1231
If most mistakes within an organization are blamed on employees, which factor is improved?
The most feared activity, honesty is lowered to tell what occurred.
289 / 1231
In a high-reliability organization, which statement best illustrates the approach to failure?
HROs leverage mistakes to improve the processes.
290 / 1231
If your hospital faces challenges to communicate to other professionals, select what helps facilitate this.
Hospitals require professional communication. Using a SBAR tool assists to understand quickly.
291 / 1231
After discovering a series of near-miss events, what should the first step be in addressing them?
Root cause is the first step.
292 / 1231
You're tasked with implementing a new safety protocol across several departments. What should you do first?
Getting everyone on board increases effectiveness.
293 / 1231
Select the correct statement.
Staff must feel safe to be honest.
294 / 1231
If a clinical area performs a failure and effect of an analysis (FMEA), what is the purpose of the task?
Redesign the system and not cost.
295 / 1231
What is the purpose of a tool designed to evaluate process?
These improve safety and not to punish, or remove it.
296 / 1231
If a medical error occurs, what is the first priority in most healthcare organizations?
Following a sentinel event, prevention action items are identified.
297 / 1231
Which best correlates the definition of Taxonomy?
A taxonomy identifies how severe the outcome is.
298 / 1231
Select which answer is best.
A taxonomy is defining events.
299 / 1231
In applying the principles of a 'Just Culture', when is disciplinary action MOST appropriate?
Disciplinary action is most appropriate in the event an employee is reckless or displays willful misconduct.
300 / 1231
Which is the best way to respond, that displays a "Just" safety culture?
Having no punishment ensures individuals report the events and it displays a "Just" culture.
301 / 1231
What is a 'Sentinel Event' primarily related to?
A sentinel event indicates serious death or harm to patients.
302 / 1231
Within a Just Culture framework, which action would be considered appropriate after a healthcare worker makes an unintentional error?
In a Just Culture, unintentional errors merit retraining, process reviews, or other corrective actions aimed at system improvement.
303 / 1231
Which of the following is the definition of high-reliability organizations?
High reliability organizations operate complex systems without mistakes over long periods of time.
304 / 1231
Using Reason’s Swiss Cheese Model, which action would be most effective in preventing an error from reaching a patient?
Adding further safeguards ensures the active event does not harm by blocking each point of failure.
305 / 1231
According to Reason’s Swiss Cheese Model of accident causation, what do the 'holes' in the slices of cheese represent?
The holes in the Swiss Cheese Model stand for active and latent failures.
306 / 1231
What would be a barrier for an organization to improve?
If an organization does not understand mistakes have an effect, it can cause problems with disclosure.
307 / 1231
In the patient’s perspective, which is most important in bedside clear reporting?
Actions such as ‘listen’ and ‘have empathy’ show the patient that you are listening to their concerns and not making light of them.
308 / 1231
When patients for whom English is not their first language require assistance, what is the most appropriate approach?
Using professional interpreters ensures accurate communication, reduces risks of misunderstanding, and complies with regulatory requirements.
309 / 1231
If a candidate fails the CPHRM examination, what is the primary implication regarding their professional standing?
The CPHRM is a credential, not a certificate. Therefore, failing the exam does not result in a certificate.
310 / 1231
According to the information provided, how many scored multiple-choice questions make up the CPHRM examination?
The CPHRM examination consists of 110 multiple choice questions, with 100 questions contributing to the final score and 10 pre-test questions.
311 / 1231
For Certified Professionals of Healthcare Risk Management, what is one way to renew the certification?
CPHRM certification can be renewed by successfully re-taking the examination or by completing contact hours of continuing professional education.
312 / 1231
What, do staff " most fear", which lowers honesty to tell what occurred?
313 / 1231
Which area does the Joint Commission require attention, in a organization's safety processes?
The TJC required has to be on "Actionable" ideas, and RCA to avoid repeat mistakes!
314 / 1231
What must an organization implement first?
What "should be" must proceed what "is" before to truly improve.
315 / 1231
What is "MOST important " when "building" a new safety culture program?
The upper most levels have to take, defend, improve the system. If leadership fails its employees follow.
316 / 1231
You wish you "improve bedside-report" by making it clear. Which of there improves it?
By giving facts and giving the customer a clear mind, it then builds trust, which will give you the permission to go forth.
317 / 1231
To help your clients in "all care events" What might you help "improve", that will "assist" in the proper safety?
Visual cues help with retention, improvement, and help with memory recall, therefore decreasing error.
318 / 1231
How can hospitals meet the "new" challenge of our customer now understanding "more", of our practices?
In today's age of information, we can not rely on "only" our "skill", today they must know everything you know
319 / 1231
During process discovery, you uncover several near-miss events that were addressed, but ignored by administration. To the administration, they felt mistakes do not have that much effect. What barrier seems to be the problem, for 'disclosure'?
Leadership tone is very important, when the 'tone' does not equal the tone of the team," it signals and create more issues.
320 / 1231
CMS is primarily related to "cost" for "Never Events", but for "Safety Practice". Which area are they MOST interested in?
For obvious reasons is "prevention".
321 / 1231
What is "Required", to achieve "Success" with a patients "Disclosure"?
Having Honesty builds "Trust" for future interactions'
322 / 1231
The actions "'listen," 'have empathy'" are BEST used during with which step to the patient, after an event?
There has to first be proper communication to the customer after all must be empathy and "understanding".
323 / 1231
What must a consultant "first" achieve, before they recommend an action to" improve" safety?
Safety comes before everything. All must first be reviewed.
324 / 1231
What step MOST improves human factor errors?
Using a robust checklist enhances awareness and causes less 'roting'
325 / 1231
Which statement displays the "Active Error" in a series of events?
An active error shows a clear mistake right now. A potential Active Error over time shows a broken system with latent steps.
326 / 1231
An organization receives a complaint of an egregious mistake in the oncology medication dispensing process. How does an organization immediately improve and create a new 'safety' process?
Redesign of each workflow process step and what a team-member can do is the best way to improve all areas of work
327 / 1231
What response BEST correlates with having a "Just" culture?
Having a Just Culture simply emphasizes "system" as the potential problem, in addition, it must emphasis the goal is now to point blame, but to better heal wounded system.
328 / 1231
What is the role of a 'taxonomy' for a risk consultant?
Taxonomy must have proper way to study, codify, and have a way future people better know and avoid that mistake again.
329 / 1231
To what does the phrase, "Stop the Line" directly refer?
Stopping the line is for real-time quality assurance to avoid possible mistake.
330 / 1231
Which is the best methodology for a department to determine every "at promise" (unsafe) condition within its process?
FEMA is the most common way a department proactively studies its potential risks.
331 / 1231
Healthcare organizations must have interprofessional communication. Which choice is the tool for clear communication?
An emphasis on clear communication using tools such as SBAR or "Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation."
332 / 1231
How might an organization promote 'patient safety' to prevent problems from potentially arising?
Institutions that encourage honesty are more likely to learn of real concerns before an error occurs.
333 / 1231
How would a healthcare organization prioritize their patient safety in a facility that has a limited number of resources?
Discovering latent flaws and systems for future error reduction requires the most important focus so that no event might pose harm again.
334 / 1231
What action demonstrates an 'organization's commitment to transparency' after a serious adverse event?
Rapid and transparent communication with all relevant parties involved (patient, legal authorities, etc.)
335 / 1231
How does 'high-reliability' organization structure enhance healthcare in complex situations?
HROs focus on safety. Constant awareness is important in preventing potential system errors.
336 / 1231
In what ways did "To Err is Human" influence the design of healthcare systems and processes?
This publication caused an increased emphasis to understanding the systems-level reasons for mistakes.
337 / 1231
In a healthcare setting, the use of SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) during patient handoffs aims primarily to improve what?
The SBAR model supports standardization and consistency in communication among healthcare professionals.
338 / 1231
Which methodology would be most effective for a hospital aiming to reduce medication errors across all departments?
FMEA is a proactive measure that allows an organization to identify areas to improve before mistakes occur.
339 / 1231
The team uncovers an incident where a surgeon ignored a safety checklist, resulting in an infection. What action reflects the principles of a Just Culture?
A key aspect of Just Culture is analyzing the system's role in an incident, so changes can be made.
340 / 1231
Within an organization with a fully developed safety culture, what behavior would employees consistently demonstrate?
In a high-reliability (developed safety) organization, employees display constant awareness and question the process. Open communication is essential for preventing potential problems.
341 / 1231
Which strategy would be MOST effective in improving a healthcare organization's response to medical errors, fostering a culture of safety and enabling improved patient outcomes?
Analyzing errors and working to identify systemic causes is the best course of action because it facilitates meaningful change.
342 / 1231
Which action aligns with valuing a 'just culture' after a medication error occurred?
A just culture balances accountability with learning and promotes an environment where errors are seen as opportunities to improve systems.
343 / 1231
Which strategy would be most effective to shift an organization from a reactive safety approach to a proactive one?
A proactive approach to safety requires institutions to actively identify potential hazards before they result in harm, so they can be addressed.
344 / 1231
A healthcare institution implemented a new electronic health record system, but patient wait times in the emergency department increased. Which action exemplifies a 'system thinking' approach to resolve this unintended consequence?
A systems thinking approach considers the interconnectedness of different parts of the organization and how changes in one area affect others.
345 / 1231
If a healthcare organization prioritizes adherence to set routines over critical evaluation in complex situations, which type of safety culture does it most likely exhibit?
A calculative safety culture relies on systematic approaches and adherence to protocols, which can sometimes overshadow adaptability and critical evaluation needed for genuine safety improvements.
346 / 1231
A healthcare provider uses a cloud-based electronic health record (EHR) system. Match the key responsibilities related to data security:
These responsibilities show how liability is shared with 3rd parties. Contracts should define these details and ensure both sides are in compliance.
347 / 1231
Consider a scenario where a major data breach has occurred. Match the correct response with the responsible party:
Coordination and expertise are essential after a major data-breach. All responses are needed and necessary, but it is important to know which teams own which task.
348 / 1231
Match the following events with their corresponding regulatory implications under HIPAA:
These consequences demonstrate the risks associated failing to comply with the rules on patient data. A plan of rectification is often required to demonstrate the organization's committment to improvement
349 / 1231
Match the following data security terms with their correct definitions:
These methods are essential for safeguarding patient data. A strong understanding of what each one entails is crucial to selecting the right security measures.
350 / 1231
Match the following regulations with their respective scope regarding patient data:
These regulations are critical for governing data handling in healthcare. Note that EMTALA and ADA have implications, but HIPAA/HITECH are specifically built around data.
351 / 1231
Match the following potential scenarios with the most legally sound course of HIPAA complaint handling:
HIPAA rules give explicit guidelines on appropriate use and treatment of medical and private health records.
352 / 1231
Match the EMTALA rule with its correct description, in the context of emergency medical treatment:
EMTALA's monetary penalties and reporting rules exist to ensure equitable access in all medical situations.
353 / 1231
Match the EMTALA sanction with the corresponding scenario:
EMTALA violations can result in CMS termination, OIG exclusion, SLA site license authority, and monetary penalties.
354 / 1231
Match the CMS EMTALA guideline with the appropriate individual's role in a situation where an on-call specialist physician refuses to come to the emergency department (ED) to assess a patient:
CMs EMTALA guidelines outline the responsibilities of involved parties when an on-call specialist physician refuses to assess a patient.
355 / 1231
Match the EMTALA requirements with their corresponding actions a hospital with emergency services must perform:
EMTALA requires hospitals to provide a medical screening examination to determine if an emergency medical condition exists, stabilize patients, and ensures appropriate transfers of patients, and unbiased billing process.
356 / 1231
To avoid hippa penalties with a large business you will need?
357 / 1231
Following the emergency hipa security steps what should be part of it but not?
358 / 1231
An employer may decline to hire a disabled applicant otherwise qualified for the job with:
359 / 1231
The risk manager should be vigilant and monitor what to keep the quality of medical care with who? The risk manager should:
360 / 1231
A candidate for whom you would be a supervisor has a disability. Match which of the questions during the interview by pairing do, and don't.
361 / 1231
A candidate for whom you would be a supervisor has a disability. What information about the person can't you ask for?
362 / 1231
Match the following terms with their correct definitions related to the ADA Title III:
363 / 1231
Match the following scenarios as either a HIPAA violation or not:
364 / 1231
Match the obligations per regulations on the following entities:
365 / 1231
Match the following changes with the EMTALA Regulations in 2003:
366 / 1231
Match the characteristics from the following options:
367 / 1231
Match the scenario to the appropriate guidelines to follow under EMTALA.
368 / 1231
As the risk manager, how should you use extreme caution in all communications regarding patient care as it is part of legal/regulatory.
369 / 1231
Match the appropriate guidelines.
370 / 1231
Match the actions with the correct guidelines.
371 / 1231
Match the action as a violation of EMTALA guidelines:
372 / 1231
An emergency department physician calls the orthopedic surgeon on call. After a brief discussion, the ED physician requests that the surgeon come to the hospital to examine the patient and provide care. The surgeon refuses. According to CMS EMTALA guidelines, which of the following individuals should make the decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient?
373 / 1231
Match the following actions with whether they are required components of EMTALA:
Adherence to EMTALA guidelines ensures that all patients receive necessary medical care, regardless of their ability to pay.
374 / 1231
Match the reporting requirements with the hospital action required under EMTALA:
375 / 1231
Match the following authorities with the corresponding actions required if a violation occurs within 72 hours:
Prompt reporting of violations to relevant authorities is crucial for maintaining compliance and patient safety.
376 / 1231
Under the Stark Law, it is permissible for a physician to refer patients to an entity for designated health services covered by Medicare if the physician or an immediate family member has a financial relationship with the entity, provided the relationship is disclosed in writing to the patient prior to the referral.
The Stark Law prohibits physicians from referring patients to an entity for designated health services covered by Medicare if the physician or an immediate family member has a financial relationship with the entity, irrespective of disclosure.
377 / 1231
Within the ambit of ADA Title III, a private entity is at liberty to apply eligibility criteria that tend to screen out an individual with a disability if such criteria are premised upon the imperative of ensuring legitimate safety requirements for the extant operation.
Under ADA Title III, a public accommodation must not impose or apply eligibility criteria that screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a disability unless such criteria are necessary for legitimate safety requirements.
378 / 1231
The HITECH Act stipulates that in the event of a data breach involving unsecured protected health information (PHI), affected individuals must be notified within 30 days of the breach's discovery.
The HITECH Act mandates that in the event of a data breach involving unsecured protected health information (PHI), affected individuals must be notified within 60 days of the breach's discovery.
379 / 1231
Within the context of EMTALA, if upon presentation to the Emergency Department, an individual is deemed to require services beyond the capabilities of that facility, the hospital is obligated to provide stabilizing treatment, and an appropriate transfer; the accepting facility retains the latitude to refuse the transfer based *solely* on the patient's insurance status or ability to pay.
EMTALA explicitly prohibits discrimination based on insurance status or ability to pay, making such refusals a violation of federal law unless other factors such as capacity issues are the reason.
380 / 1231
In the event that a resident is filing a formal complaint regarding an infraction of resident rights it is acceptable for the long term care facility to levy penalties against them.
Long term care facilities must emphasize residents' rights and promote their dignity. Residents may file formal complaints about infringement of any right without fear of penalty.
381 / 1231
The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) allows a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening if a physician is immediately available
The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) permits a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening if the RN is designated by the medical staff as qualified and is working under an approved standardized procedure when a physician is *not* available to perform the screening examination.
382 / 1231
According to updated EMTALA regulations, a hospital is obligated to screen and stabilize a patient who develops a medical emergency during an outpatient physical therapy visit.
A patient who develops chest pain during an outpatient physical therapy visit does not cause the hospital to have an EMTALA obligation to screen and stabilize the patient.
383 / 1231
According to EMTALA’s Nondiscrimination Provision, a local regional referral center with available beds may refuse to accept a patient transfer due to the patient's resident status if they refuse the transfer.
A regional referral center cannot refuse transfer if it has available beds under the EMTALA Nondiscrimination Provision. Residents of a program are not allowed to refuse transfer during a potential health emergency.
384 / 1231
Under EMTALA guidelines, the decision to have an on-call specialist physician come to the ED to assess a patient can be made by the on-call specialist physician.
The decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient, is not made by the physician, it is made by the emergency department physician.
385 / 1231
Under EMTALA, a hospital is required to report suspected improper transfers, such as financial 'dumps', within 24 hours.
Hospitals are required to report suspected improper transfers within 72 hours, not 24 hours, under EMTALA guidelines. This ensures timely investigation and response to potential violations.
386 / 1231
A central log must be kept of all patients seeking emergent care in the hospital.
A central log must be kept of all patients.
387 / 1231
A 50-year-old man was receiving antibiotic therapy as a hospital patient, but required a transfer when his condition worsen quickly. The hospital personnel did their best effort to transfer but unfortunately unsuccessful, This is not a EMTALA violation.
In A 50-year-old man was receiving antibiotic therapy as an inpatient at the Milo Regional Medical Center is not a EMTALA violation effort to transfer.
388 / 1231
A 90-year-old patient expresses that they are concerned about his children stealing his finance while at risk for a medical procedure, and now all communications done in front of them.
Cannot discuses patient information in front the patient's finds except with patient accept.
389 / 1231
If known medical malpractice has occurred, you cannot just have the doctor just sign a form that indicates that medical malpractice occurred for the case and this may cause a per se liability of the professional license.
If medical malpractice has occurred, you cannot just have the doctor only sign or indicate that medical malpractice occurred for the case and this may cause a per se liability of the professional license.
390 / 1231
A risk professional is made aware that a nurse released protected patient info, a proper HIPAA process should be followed by reporting to OCR office of civil right.
There is a HIPAA and a proper HIPAA process should be followed and reported to OCR office of civil right.
391 / 1231
Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, employers can ask about the nature and severity of a disability during the initial job interview to determine reasonable accommodations.
Under the ADA, employers are typically prohibited from asking about the nature or severity of a disability during the job interview.
392 / 1231
A central component of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is that all healthcare providers always must obtain patient authorization before disclosing PHI to external entities for reasons other than treatment, payment, or operations.
Permitted disclosure can occur without authorization for law enforcement purposes, public health activities, or judicial proceedings when certain conditions are met.
393 / 1231
EMTALA permits a certified nursing assistant (CNA) to perform a medical screening examination when a physician is unavailable.
The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) permits a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening.
394 / 1231
Under the Medicare program, a SNF (skilled nurse facility) emphasizes on residents' rights, safety and dignity, and that is unrelated to the Medicaid program.
The Medicare & Medicaid programs in a SNF (stilled nurse facility) both emphasized residents' rights, safety and dignity, residents may file formal complaints about infraction of any right .
395 / 1231
Under the emergency exception to the informed consent rule, only the patient's power of attorney can provide the emergency treatment.
The emergency exception to the informed consent rule allows physicians to assume an unconscious patient and proceed with emergency treatment.
396 / 1231
Under EMTALA regulations, an off-campus outpatient facility 2 miles from the main hospital __must__ provide a medical screening examination within its capabilities and transport to the hospital.
An off-campus outpatient facility 1 mile away from a hospital __must__ provide a medical screening examination within its capabilities and transport to the hospital.
397 / 1231
In November 2003, federal EMTALA regulations were updated, specifying that all hospitals must have physicians on call 36 hours a day, 8 days a week.
All hospitals must have physicians on call 24 hours a day, seven days a week since the EMTALA regulation updates in November 2003.
398 / 1231
Under the EMTALA Nondiscrimination Provision, a local regional referral center is obligated to accept the transfer of a patient, if they have the capacity.
Under the EMTALA Nondiscrimination Provision the local regional referral center is obligated to take this patient.
399 / 1231
Under EMTALA guidelines, the on-call specialist physician has the authority to decide whether they will come to the ED to assess a patient if requested by the ED physician.
Under EMTALA CMS guidelines, the emergency department physician makes the ultimate decision, despite input or refusal from specialists.
400 / 1231
An on-site examination by the on-call cardiologist, requested due to an equivocal ECG, is considered a stabilizing treatment under EMTALA guidelines.
An examination by the on-call specialist physician is part of the medical screening examination, not a stabilizing treatment.
401 / 1231
Under EMTALA, a hospital that cannot provide complete on-call coverage for a particular service may be fined up to $75,000 without further obligations.
A hospital that cannot provide complete on-call coverage must make efforts to arrange for such coverage to the best of its ability.
402 / 1231
A central log of everyone seeking emergent care in the Emergency Department must be maintained by the security department.
The central log of everyone coming to the Emergency Department for emergent care must to be maintained by departments that offer non-scheduled primary care services.
403 / 1231
EMTALA requires Medicare/Medicaid hospitals with emergency services to always avoid billing patients, regardless of insurance status.
While avoiding billing uninsured patients is a consideration, EMTALA primarily focuses on ensuring a medical screening examination and stabilization of emergency medical conditions, not the act of billing patients.
404 / 1231
Hospitals are only *encouraged* to report suspected improper patient transfers.
Hospitals are *required* to report suspected improper transfers, not merely encouraged.
405 / 1231
Reporting a SLA site license authority violation within 72 hours is mandatory.
Failure to report a SLA site license authority violation within 72 hours constitutes a violation.
406 / 1231
How should a risk manager respond to a data breach of patient information that impacts over 500 individuals locally?
If the breach is believed to affect more than 500 residents of a state or jurisdiction, notice must be provided to prominent media within that area, and posting on an HHS web site.
407 / 1231
Which attribute would automatically categorize facility information as Protected Health Information under HIPAA regulations, thereby mandating stringent security and access control measures?
In HIPAA terms, data is considered PHI if any information about health status, provision of health care, or payment for health care that can be linked to a specific individual.
408 / 1231
In contemplating potential litigation against the healthcare organization, what proactive maneuver should the astute risk manager undertake to safeguard the organization's interests?
Facing lititation, a risk manager should activate legal privilege and begin to prepare for a possible defense.
409 / 1231
A seasoned risk professional, upon discerning a potential documentation error within a patient's comprehensive medical record, should execute which of the following imperative actions?
The risk professional should propose to the practitioner responsible to amend potential documention errors with proper procedure.
410 / 1231
Within the architecture of a healthcare organization, upon receiving a subpoena for a patient's medical records, what precise course of action should the risk manager immediately prescribe to the involved staff?
The staff should contact defense counsel for guidance upon receiving a subpoena for a patient's medical records.
411 / 1231
Which criterion definitively distinguishes information as Individually Identifiable Health Information (IIHI) under the rigorous stipulations of the HIPAA Privacy Rule?
Information is IHI if there is a potential for an individual to be recognized based on the information alone.
412 / 1231
Under the labyrinthine framework of HIPAA regulations, which specific disclosure is permissible without obtaining explicit individual authorization, and without affording the individual an opportunity to either agree or object?
Under HIPAA, disclosure is permitted without an individuals authorization and without an opportunity to agree/object with a validly issued subpoena.
413 / 1231
Within the framework of Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, what specific element must be integrated into a facility safety program to ensure comprehensive compliance?
A compliant facility safety program must include a hazard communication program that elucidates the risks associated with chemical exposure.
414 / 1231
According to Medicare's regulations for Long-Term Care (LTC) facilities, what are LTC laws primarily focused on with regard to patient care?
LTC laws aim to improve and maintain overall quality of patient care in long-term care (LTC) facilities, initiatives should continually improve.
415 / 1231
Under what highly specific condition does the emergency exception to the informed consent rule permit physicians to presume consent from an unconscious patient with no available information?
The physician must document the emergency and the need to provide emergency care in order to assume consent from a patient.
416 / 1231
When facing potential litigation against the organization. what action could a risk manager take?
A healthcare risk professional facing potential litigation should assure the patient's medical records remain secure.
417 / 1231
What action should a risk manager do upon learning of a potential documentation error?
At no point should records be altered, rather addendums should be added.
418 / 1231
What action should a risk manager recommend to staff upon receipt of a subpoena for a patient's medical records?
After receiving a letter stating notification, they risk manager should state the importance of notifying the patient regarding the supoena for an opportunity to object.
419 / 1231
Which of the following is NOT considered individually identifiable health information?
According to HIPAA, Employment records that the covered entity maintains in its capacity as an employer is NOT considered individually identifiable health information.
420 / 1231
What does the Privacy Rule give patients the right to request?
The Privacy Rule gives patients the right to request corrections to be added to their health information.
421 / 1231
Which of the following federal agencies has the authority to enforce the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule?
The Office for Civil Rights (OCR) has the authority to enforce HIPAA violations.
422 / 1231
A risk professional needs to design a facility safety program that complies with the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA). Which of the following elements must be included in the Program?
The key purpose of OSHA is to create workplace safety rules.
423 / 1231
According to the Medicare regulations for Long-Term care, in order to improve and maintain overall quality of patient care in long-term care (LTC) facilities, initiatives should include:
Initiatives to continually improve and maintain the overall level of patient care in long-term care (LTC) facilities should include a special focus on restraint reduction.
424 / 1231
In the event of an unconscious patient with no available information, under what conditions can physicians assume consent for a procedure, according to the emergency exception to the informed consent rule?
The emergency exception to the informed consent rule allows physicians to assume that an unconscious patient, about whom there is no information, would have given consent to a procedure in an emergency situation when the physician documents the emergency and the need to provide emergency care.
425 / 1231
An organization's commitment to following recommended practices and guidelines as it relates to business and ethical practices falls under what program?
A corporate compliance program is a program that demonstrates commitment to ethical and honest behavior in the workplace.
426 / 1231
The Privacy Rule gives the patients all but which one of the following
Patients have rights to A, B and C not d.
427 / 1231
What is NOT Individually Identifiable Information?
Employments records that the covered entity maintains in its capacity as an employer are not identified as Indivdiually identified information.
428 / 1231
Which of the following documents explains a healthcare organization's rules for releasing a patient's medical information?
The notice of privacy practice is what explains the rules set to manage healthcare information.
429 / 1231
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA):
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) focuses on; Prohibits the flow of individually identified health information for unauthorized purposes; Allows individuals to know who is accessing their information; Allows individuals the opportunity to obtain corrections to inaccurate or incorrect information; Provides for legal recourse against individuals who misuse or mishandle health information.
430 / 1231
What processes can a healthcare facility use to disclose patient health information without the patient's authorization based on the HIPAA Privacy Rule?
You’re covered to make a claim, or a subpoena, or a referral, but there shouldn’t be any family requests, you need documentation always, and peer reviewing is always okay. Treatments, payment, and healthcare operations are essential.
431 / 1231
According to HIPAA, which of the following disclosures are permitted without an individual's authorization and without granting the individual an opportunity to agree or object to the disclosure?
A physician disclosing an individual's medical record to colleague (1), a hospital disclosing health information to the company providing its billing services and a patient health information to an accreditation organization for the purpose of obtaining accreditation are all examples of when authorization isn't required. Not for directory information.
432 / 1231
Accidental destruction of a provider's medical record of a patient after that patient has brought suit against that provider is called
Accidental destruction of a provider's medical record of a patient after that patient has brought suit against that provider is called spoliation of evidence.
433 / 1231
It is important to protect the discoverability of incident reports. Which of the following have significant impact on whether the reports are discoverable?
Important factors may be 2,3, and 4.
434 / 1231
A risk professional is notified that a patient with a dog has just been admitted to a medical unit.To ensure compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), the hospital risk professional should ask the patient:
The risk professional, for compliance, should ask if the dog is required because of a disability and what task or service has the animal been trained to perform.
435 / 1231
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits an employer from asking about the existence, nature, or severity of a disability when?
The ADA prohibits an employer from asking about the existence, nature, or severity of a disability until offering the position to the candidate.
436 / 1231
An employer declined to hire a qualified applicant otherwise, why?
These are all good answers, however according to ADA requirements if the applicant cannot explain or demonstrate how she would actually perform her job when asked to do so, then that would be accurate.
437 / 1231
A risk professional learns of an incident where medical staff discussed a patient's information in front of the patient's family. This action is not covered under HIPAA except:
You can only converse in front of the patients family if they accept.
438 / 1231
According to HIPAA guidelines, what conditions are required for the exception of PHI to be shared for treatment?
The conditions of the exception are; treatment such as consultation, payment such as insurer, and operation such as quality and risk management activity and FDA; Abuse; Criminal.
439 / 1231
According to EMTALA, what type of information access regarding patients' medical information is permissible?
You can access medical decisions of patients.
440 / 1231
What is the primary focus of the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA)?
The main focus of the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA) is to create a confidential system for reporting and analyzing patient safety events
441 / 1231
The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act established regulations regarding what aspects of clinical lab practices?
The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) focused on quality standards for clinical laboratories.
442 / 1231
To enhance the quality of a medical record, the risk manager should be vigilant in assessing the quality of medical record documentation.What should they do?
The risk manager should Review incident patterns and tends for documentation issues and problems throughout the organization and they should also contact defense counsel whenever there is a violation of a documentation guideline or standard of practice.
443 / 1231
During an interview, what would be appropriate for a supervisor to ask a candidate?
During the interview, there are certain questions that can’t be asked some of these are around citizenship, but meeting requirements is one that can be asked about.
444 / 1231
Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, what question is appropriate to ask a person if a dog is brought to the facility and is said to be a service animal?
Ask for proof that the dog is required because of a disability and what task or service the animal has been trained to perform.
445 / 1231
Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, when is an employer typically permitted to ask about the nature or severity of a disability?
Under the ADA the employer has to offer the position for asking about the nature or severity of a disability.
446 / 1231
Under Title III of the ADA, what is a public accommodation prohibited from doing?
Title III prevents from imposing eligibility criteria that screen out individuals with disabilities but criteria are necessary for safe operation.
447 / 1231
The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits discrimination based on disability in which of the following areas?
The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits discrimination based on disability in Public Accommodations and Commercial Facilities
448 / 1231
Which of the following is included in the types of abuse to report?
Types of abuse are Emotional-Sexual-Physical-Neglect-Abduction-Abonnement
449 / 1231
CAPTA is designed for what type of abuse reporting requirements?
CAPTA is used when talking about Child Abuse reporting requirements
450 / 1231
What survey frequency is generally conducted from CMS for resident care in long-term care facilities?
Surveys are conducted every 9-15 months from CMS
451 / 1231
Which of the following initiatives is most aligned with LTC requirements for improving patient care?
One of the things that LTC focuses on is reduction
452 / 1231
According to Medicare regulations for Long-Term Care facilities, what are LTC laws primarily focused on?
AKA: LTC laws emphasizes patients rights and promoting the dignity of residents'
453 / 1231
In what situation, according to the general emergency exception to the informed consent rule, can physicians assume an unconscious patient would provide consent for a procedure?
Physicians can assume an unconscious patient would consent when the physician documents the emergency and the need to provide emergency care
454 / 1231
A 50-year-old man receiving antibiotic therapy as an inpatient requires transfer due to a dramatically changed condition, developing a subdural hematoma requiring immediate neurosurgical intervention not available at the current facility. Despite extensive efforts to find a facility with neurosurgery capabilities, his transfer is delayed. Which of the following are EMTALA violations?
None of the above
455 / 1231
Which of the following EMTALA obligations applies to an off-campus outpatient facility located one mile away from a main hospital?
An off-campus outpatient facility must implement a policy for handling emergency medical conditions in the event one occurs.
456 / 1231
Changes to the federal EMTALA regulations that became effective in November 2003 include:
Changes to the federal EMTALA regulations that became effective in November 2003 dictates the definition of hospital property was narrowed, and the EMTALA regulations no longer apply to inpatients.
457 / 1231
After providing a medical screening exam, the Emergency Department physician calls the orthopedic surgeon on call. After a brief discussion, the ED physician requests that the surgeon come to the hospital to examine the patient and provide care. The surgeon refuses. Per CMS EMTALA guidelines, which of the following individuals should make the decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient?
The emergency department physician must make the decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient.
458 / 1231
A patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of scrotal pain and a swollen testicle. The ultrasound examination is equivocal, and the emergency physician believes an on-site examination by the on-call urologist is necessary. The urologist's examination would be considered what under EMTALA?
The examination by the urologist would be considered Part of the Medical Screening Examination
459 / 1231
If a hospital cannot provide complete on-call coverage for a particular service represented by its medical staff, what action does EMTALA require?
Under EMTALA, If the hospital cannot provide complete on-call coverage for a particular service represented by the medical staff, the hospital must make efforts to arrange for such coverage to the best of its ability.
460 / 1231
An Emergency Department must maintain a central log of everyone seeking emergent care. Such logs must be maintained by departments that:
Departments who offer non-scheduled primary care services must maintain a central log of everyone seeking emergent care.
461 / 1231
Under what circumstance does EMTALA allow a registered nurse (RN) to perform a medical screening examination in the emergency services?
Per EMTALA, a registered nurse (RN) can perform a medical screening if the RN is designated by the medical staff as qualified and is working under an approved standardized procedure when allowed by the state's nursing practice act.
462 / 1231
A 36-week pregnant woman arrives at the emergency department with labor pains. She is sent directly to labor and delivery without registration or triage in the ED. Which statement accurately reflects EMTALA compliance in this situation?
If the governing body is aware of the labor and delivery nurses doing screening exams; and those registered and trained in the hospital have access to the hospital medical screening examination policy then the action is acceptable.
463 / 1231
A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a fever and earache. After examination, the physician diagnoses otitis media, notes a supple neck, minimal temperature, and that the child is awake, happy and playful. The child is discharged with antibiotics. The next day, the child returns with meningitis and is severely brain-injured. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the hospital's EMTALA liability?
This was an adequate screening exam, so EMTALA does not apply in this case.
464 / 1231
Who has the primary responsibility for determining the initial emergency response level at the scene of an incident?
The emergency medical technicians responding to the scene has the primary responsibility for determining the initial emergency response level
465 / 1231
A patient presents to a hospital's physical therapy department for an outpatient visit and develops chest pain during the session, requiring transfer to the emergency department. Under EMTALA regulations, is the hospital obligated to provide a medical screening examination and stabilization?
EMTALA obligations typically apply to patients who present to the emergency department, not those already receiving scheduled outpatient services when an emergency arises.
466 / 1231
A 34-year-old male patient presents to a rural hospital with head trauma following a tractor accident. A CT scan reveals an epidural bleed, but the hospital lacks neurosurgical services. The emergency physician contacts a regional referral center with a neurosurgical unit, where beds are available. However, the resident on call refuses the transfer. What is true regarding this scenario?
Under the EMTALA Nondiscrimination Provision the local regional referral center is obligated to take this patient, so the emergency department must contact the regional referral center.
467 / 1231
Following a medical screening exam in the Emergency Department, an on-call orthopedic surgeon refuses to come to the hospital to examine the patient despite a request from the ED physician. According to CMS EMTALA guidelines, who is responsible for making the decision whether the on-call specialist must come to the ED to assess the patient?
According to EMTALA guidelines, the emergency department physician must make the decision about whether the on-call specialist physician must come to the ED to assess the patient.
468 / 1231
What action does the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) _require_ a hospital with emergency services to take first?
EMTALA mandates a medical screening examination to determine if an emergency medical condition exists.
469 / 1231
What is the maximum civil monetary penalty for violating EMTALA regulations?
Civil monetary penalties for EMTALA violations can reach up to $50,000 per instance.
470 / 1231
Under EMTALA, what specific action are hospitals _required_ to perform regarding suspected improper patient transfers?
Hospitals must report suspected improper transfers to comply with EMTALA.
471 / 1231
If a hospital violates the SLA site license authority and does not report it within 72 hours, what is likely to occur?
Failure to report within the given timeframe is a violation of standards
472 / 1231
Associate the following topics with if they apply or do not apply to EMTALA:
EMTALA aims to ensure that all patients have access to a medical screening examination and necessary stabilizing treatment irrespective of their financial status or health insurance.
473 / 1231
Connect these key terms regarding the Safety Medical Device Act with their definitions:
The SMDA ensures patient safety and promotes the early detection and proper handling of medical device-related safety issues.
474 / 1231
Relate the following organizations to their role:
The work of these agencies is vital to the infrastructure of healthcare, research, and patient safety.
475 / 1231
Match each type of consent with its description:
A thorough understanding of the various types of consent is crucial for healthcare providers to ensure they're acting in accordance with legal and ethical guidelines.
476 / 1231
Match the following ethical principles with their corresponding descriptions:
Adhering to these principles ensures that healthcare providers are prioritizing the well-being and rights of their patients.
477 / 1231
Match the following items related to Ethical Principles:
These ethical principles should be in line with all entities to encourage safe, respectful ethical consideration.
478 / 1231
Match each entity with the primary role:
Understanding different organizations helps with decision making.
479 / 1231
Match each entity with its role according to the The Patient Self-Determination Act
Understanding each entities role helps in providing patients with advance directives in the heath care setting.
480 / 1231
Match the following terms related to surrogates of patients with the correct information:
These are the guidelines for what is ethically appropiate in the health care setting.
481 / 1231
Match the ethical issue with the appropriate category:
Understanding ethical issues before they are at play assist with providing ethical health care.
482 / 1231
Match the following statutes related to patient's rights with the correct detail:
Understanding the details of these statutes help to ensure you are compliant with federal laws and regulations.
483 / 1231
Match the following types of Advance Directives correctly:
Advance directives help ensure a patient's wishes are honored when they are unable to communicate them.
484 / 1231
Match the following scenarios with the appropriate moral obligation:
These moral obligations ensure patient rights are upheld throughout their care.
485 / 1231
Match the ethical principle with its description:
These four ethical principles are the foundation for ethical decision making for medical practitioners.
486 / 1231
Match the correct type of law with the correct description:
Understanding the different sources of law is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure compliance and ethical practice.
487 / 1231
Ethical rationalism posits that a health-care provider, when faced with a patient lacking cognitive capacity, should exclusively prioritize the directives established in the patient's advance directive, irrespective of the provider’s personal moral beliefs.
While respecting advance directives is crucial, providers are also bound by their ethical and moral responsibilities, requiring a balanced consideration rather than absolute adherence irrespective of personal moral beliefs.
488 / 1231
The Safe Medical Device Act of 1990 necessitates that ambulatory surgical centers exclusively report adverse incidents involving permanently implantable devices directly to the FDA, thereby circumventing initial notification to the manufacturer, to expedite regulatory review.
The SMDA of 1990 delineates that ambulatory surgical centers must primarily report device-related events to the product manufacturer and then to the FDA to ensure proper tracking and management of device failures.
489 / 1231
Informed consent mandates that physicians must disclose all potential risks and benefits to a patient before treatment except in scenarios involving family-focused consent processes which prioritize familial consent over full disclosure.
While family-focused consent processes exist, they do not negate the requirement for full disclosure of risks and benefits, ensuring both the family and the patient are well-informed to make sound decisions.
490 / 1231
Under the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA), a hospital is mandated to provide a medical screening examination (MSE) and stabilizing treatment within its capacity and capability once a potential emergency medical condition is reasonably believed to be present, regardless of the individual's capacity to afford medical care.
EMTALA stipulates that Medicare-participating hospitals must provide a medical screening examination (MSE) and stabilizing treatment within its capacity and capability, irrespective of the individual's ability to pay.
491 / 1231
Within the framework of the Health Care Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA), a hospital is obligated to grant a physician facing professional review proceedings no less than 90 days to furnish an informed synopsis of testimony at a subsequent impartial audition.
HCQIA stipulates that a physician be granted at least 30 days to furnish an informed summary of the testimony before an impartial hearing, not 90 days.
492 / 1231
Under EMTALA, patients in the ER can only proceed to a MSE, or medical screening exam, after an insurance preauthorization has been completed.
EMTALA mandates that all patients presenting to the ER must receive a MSE irrespective of their capacity to pay or insurance status; a QMP (qualified medical professional) can evaluate the patient for the MSE.
493 / 1231
The emergency exception bypasses the need for consent, but it still requires physicians to document the urgency and necessity of the care provided to the patient.
Even in emergencies where consent is not immediately obtainable, physicians must thoroughly document the situation and the rationale for the interventions to support accountability and informed medical practice.
494 / 1231
Once initiated, advance directives are unchangeable and cannot be modified under any circumstances.
Advance directives are not set in stone; a patient retains the right to change their mind at any point, underscoring the importance of ongoing communication and respect for patient autonomy.
495 / 1231
A health care provider is obligated to deliver treatments that violate their own ethical or religious beliefs.
Health care staff may decline to provide care if it violates their conscience, but abandoning the patient is unacceptable. It is imperative the physician arranges a transfer in this situation.
496 / 1231
Health care settings such as hospitals, rural health facilities, and nursing facilities fall under the scope of rules that apply to twenty different health care categories.
The rules pertaining to Medicare and Medicaid certification apply to a wide array of health care settings, including hospitals, rural health facilities, and nursing homes.
497 / 1231
A durable power of attorney for healthcare can not be authorized to any healthcare provider.
A durable power of attorney must be a competent adult, or be emancipated.
498 / 1231
Withholding and Withdrawing treatments such as ventilation are examples of ethics.
These issues can help to create an ethical debate.
499 / 1231
A patient is able to change their mind about an advanced directive up until the very last minute
A patient can change their mind about an advanced directive at any time.
500 / 1231
Under the Patient Self Determination Act you simply need to comply with federal law regarding patient rights
Under the Patient Self Determination Act, you must comply with state law regarding patient rights.
501 / 1231
An ethics consultation requires a formal request and justification before a consult can be performed.
An ethics consult can be requested without justification.
502 / 1231
An ethics committee's decisions are legally binding on a healthcare organization.
Ethics committees are consultive bodies and do not wield any power that can override the operational decision making of the company in question.
503 / 1231
A medical proxy needs to seek documented direction from the patient.
A medical proxy should generally seek direction and or understand the wishes of the patient whenever possible.
504 / 1231
Healthcare practitioners are **voluntary** reporters of child abuse.
Mandatory reporters are required to report suspected instances of child abuse or neglect.
505 / 1231
In most jurisdictions when a previously competent patient has a previously expressed wish to decline a treatment, it is acceptable to ignore the family's wishes, for medical care.
A previously competent patient is a competent legal person, and their wishes must be respected.
506 / 1231
A healthcare power of attorney and a living will are exactly the same in all US states.
The detail and scope of a healthcare power of attorney and living will, varies by state.
507 / 1231
The central principle for advance directives is **autonomy**.
A patient's right to advance directives is based on the ethical principle of autonomy.
508 / 1231
A 'Do Not Resuscitate' (DNR) order always requires an advance directive as a precondition.
A DNR order does not always require an advance directive as a precondition.
509 / 1231
A durable power of attorney can only be enacted once a patient has deceased.
A durable power of attorney is enacted to cater for the healthcare wishes of the person during their lifetime.
510 / 1231
The Patient Self-Determination Act emphasizes patients' rights to consider treatment options, but does not touch on who carries it out.
The Patient Self-Determination Act includes consideration of the options to carry out treatment.
511 / 1231
Beneficence, in healthcare ethics, relates to the ability to make decisions without undue influence.
Autonomy, not beneficence, is the ability to make decisions without undue influence. Beneficence means to do good.
512 / 1231
In healthcare, ethics can be impacted by law, medicine, and biotechnology.
Ethical issues in healthcare can arise from the collision of law, medicine, biotechnology, business, philosophy, religion and societal policy.
513 / 1231
Administrative Codes are enacted by congress and approved by the president.
Statutory law, not Administrative Codes, is enacted by congress and approved by the president.
514 / 1231
Joint Commission accreditation is a mandatory requirement for all healthcare organizations.
While Joint Commission accreditation is widely respected, it is a voluntary process for healthcare organizations.
515 / 1231
The assessment of data, as well as data Payment, are not key regulations and laws in healthcare.
The key regulations and laws in healthcare include: patient care, data management, payment, employment and workplace safety.
516 / 1231
CPHQ certification is a qualification listed for Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi.
Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi is listed as having CPHQ certification.
517 / 1231
A researcher is conducting a clinical trial with a novel gene therapy without guaranteeing to provide the potentially life-saving treatment once the trial has concluded. Under which ethical framework would this be evaluated within an IRB?
Justice speaks to the right for individuals to receive the applicable, life saving procedure.
518 / 1231
How do Conditions of Participation (CoPs) promulgated by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) most directly impact the provision of culturally and linguistically appropriate healthcare services within participating institutions?
This is due to CoPs impact on patient rights.
519 / 1231
Which of the following scenarios presents an ethical challenge most primarily adjudicated through the lens of distributive justice within a healthcare system exhibiting finite resources and escalating demand?
Prioritizing limited resources during a crisis.
520 / 1231
Under what highly specific circumstance would an action taken against a physician's privileges at a hospital NOT be reportable to the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB), assuming all other general reporting criteria are met?
Only actions based on competence or conduct are reportable, not those stemming solely from administrative issues.
521 / 1231
How does the Health Care Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA) most directly influence the internal operations of a healthcare organization's peer review processes regarding practitioner competence and professional conduct?
HCQIA incentivizes internal improvements through conditional legal immunity.
522 / 1231
What precise set of conditions must simultaneously obtain for an emergency department, operating under the strictures of EMTALA, to transfer an unstable patient to another medical establishment without contravening the law?
Lack of capacity, acceptance by the receiving facility and informed consent are required for an EMTALA-compliant transfer.
523 / 1231
In the realm of Institutional Review Board (IRB) oversight of clinical trials, under what circumstance, is the implementation of a corrective action plan mandatorily escalated to federal regulatory bodies (e.g., OHRP, FDA) with the most urgent degree of immediacy?
Data falsification impacting efficacy endpoints with elevated risk warrants urgent escalation to federal regulatory bodies because it indicates systemic issues and potential compromise of participant safety.
524 / 1231
Under what nuanced condition, predicated upon an intricate interplay of ethical, legal, and institutional variables, may a healthcare provider ethically decline to execute a patient request, founded on firmly held cultural beliefs, for a treatment demonstrably proven to be medically efficacious?
The option where there is demonstrable evidence indicating the requested treatment directly contravenes the provider's explicitly articulated, conscientiously held moral objections of patient safety. This presents a complex ethical situation.
525 / 1231
Within the framework of Medicare's Value-Based Purchasing (VBP) program, under what highly specific circumstance is a hospital's eligibility for incentive payments most significantly jeopardized, reflecting a multi-faceted failure encompassing clinical, administrative, and reporting shortcomings?
Failure to meet minimum benchmarks across all Hospital-Acquired Conditions (HACs) measures coupled with incomplete or inaccurate reporting of patient satisfaction scores would indicate broad systemic issues.
526 / 1231
In scenarios where a medical device has potentially malfunctioned resulting in patient harm, under which circumstances is a healthcare facility required to report specifically to the FDA, rather than solely to the device manufacturer?
Facilities must report to the FDA if the manufacturer is unknown, underscoring the critical need for diligent attempts to identify the manufacturer first.
527 / 1231
Which description is least related to the main tasks of Institutional Review Boards (IRBs)?
IRBs deal with protocols and not research funding.
528 / 1231
According to guidelines, on what is the patient's right to create advance directives founded?
The ethical cornerstone for the right to advance directives is autonomy, in which the patient is able to govern decisions without interference.
529 / 1231
What is a critical factor in determining the proper course of action with futile care?
Medical providers have no obligation to deliver care violating their ethical or religious beliefs.
530 / 1231
What is the **most** crucial action when a medical device may have contributed to a patient's death?
Under the SMDA, information should be reported to the manufacturer, which ensures a proper investigation.
531 / 1231
In a healthcare setting, what constitutes an ethical concern stemming from biotechnology?
Gene transfer brings up conversations about unforeseeable outcomes, and designer babies.
532 / 1231
Following surgery, Mr. Davis claimed negligence, and sought mediation that failed, so he then filed a state licensing complaint. What action by the patient would be reported to the NPDB?
A malpractice settlement of payment must be reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank concerning Dr. Davis
533 / 1231
What aspect of a hospital's operations is LEAST addressed by CMS's Conditions of Participation?
CMS Conditions of Participation are concerned with healthcare operations, not the makes and models of equipment.
534 / 1231
Which scenario involving a minor typically necessitates parental consent for treatment?
The parents or legal guardians are responsible for making healthcare decisions for children; however, documentation showing an authorization to treat is needed.
535 / 1231
To comply with the Health Care Quality Improvement Act, which action is **most** important to take?
HCQIA emphasizes due process, making requesting information from NPDB a critical step.
536 / 1231
What action should a risk manager take **first** when a physician's actions are not aligned with policy?
The initial step should be to work with the physician to understand and resolve the situation collaboratively.
537 / 1231
Which is required for QMP to decide correct decision making in patient’s care?
QMP if there is no ability to take decision call the doctor to do it and this is a part of MSE screening. (MSE not Stabilization.)
538 / 1231
To what entity must a hospital and/or medical device manufacturer report an adverse event under the SMDA?
If device has or may have caused or contributed to a death… report to product manufacturer
539 / 1231
What area or a question the device to be to all the personnel it can help the time and any safety question?
These are :Alerts Tracking mechanismand more ,
540 / 1231
The goal of "Ad hock group" it have to be about deal with what medical aspects.
ad hock group who deal with (option ,alternative, ramification or removal ofdevice)
541 / 1231
What is the first key step should a medical provider perform in dealing with medical device safety?
This are the action and follow by. -in dealing with devices is sequestering
542 / 1231
What are the reporting requirements for a serious injury under the Safe Medical Device Act (SMDA)?
If device has or may have caused or contributed to a serious injury... report to product manufacturer only.
543 / 1231
The FDA has main function for these areas bellow and what the products have to do
This is is what the products have to comply to be sure in The product
544 / 1231
What is the primary mission of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
This protect public health .
545 / 1231
The division of the Department of Health and Human Services that regulates prescription medication is:
This is FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION .AKA.
546 / 1231
What law defines the conditions of Medicare and Medicaid?
CoP,Cfc.
547 / 1231
In which scenario do the HIPAA laws no longer apply?
The Health care improver and in the data Bank service so no change of the HIPAA.
548 / 1231
Failure to request information from the NPDB will result to the hospital
Hospitals that do not requestinformation from the NPDB are presumed to know about theinformation they would have obtained ifthey had askedFailure to report a reportable adverseaction waives the hospital’s immunityprotection from discovery for threeyears
549 / 1231
What is the name of the federal reporting initiative that contains information on healthcare practitioners?
This is HCQIA: NATIONAL PRACTITIONER DATA BANK (NPDB)Details: provides conditional immunityfrom anti-trust suits against healthcarefacilities and their medical staff thatparticipate in peer review, providedthat….
550 / 1231
Which law mandates that medical malpractice payments must be collected and reported to help protect patients?
These are Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 (HCQIA)and more .
551 / 1231
If a hospital is found to have far above average “HACs,” what action may that be taken by Medicare?
Reason for a “HAC": To improve medical care ,enforce federal regulation and no longer pay higher rates.
552 / 1231
What is the major goal of CMS's focus on “hospital-acquired conditions”HACs and its hospital “value based purchasing program”, VBP?
Enacted due to and aimed at: High cost and high volume, Assignment of higher MS-DRG payment (increased reimbursement) and more .
553 / 1231
All of the following represent a CMS Condition of Participation, **except**:
COP include Infection control, surgical services, governing body, patient right and more.
554 / 1231
Select the appropriate role that provides operational elements via the Medicare CoP for nursing services.
All of the above
555 / 1231
Which of these is a focus area of Condition of Participation for hospitals?
COP focus areas are medical record services ,pharmaceutical services, radiological services,laboratory services,food and dietetic services,etc..
556 / 1231
Which entities must adhere to the standards laid out in CMS Conditions of Participation?
Hospitals and providers seeking Medicare/Medicaid certification.
557 / 1231
According to 2023 CMS updates, what's a primary goal of Condition of Participation(CoP) standards?
Is related to government rules and standards-CoP for hspitals
558 / 1231
All of the following are key requirements for EMTALA, **except**:
The correct process is:
559 / 1231
Under EMTALA, stabilizing an individual with an emergency medical condition requires providing treatment within:
Medical examination and treatment within its capacity and capability to stabilize the medical condition.
560 / 1231
Which statement is most correct when considering EMTALA?
Requires hospitals to provide a medical screening exam (MSE) and, if needed, clinical stabilization, to any individual who comes to hospital seeking care.
561 / 1231
In the case of suspected, but unconfirmed, medical errors and potential harm, risk managers should:
Work with the physician toward resolution of the situation.
562 / 1231
All of the following are core components of systemic decision-making, **except**:
Ethics consultations and decision-making done systematically will help to ensure that ethical principles are met.
563 / 1231
Decisions from the Ethics Committee are:
Decisions from Ethics Committee are non-binding -consultative only. The Ethics Commitee's goal is to point out ethical dilemmas, not mandate treatment.
564 / 1231
Ethical decisions are primarily based on what while legal decisions are primarily based on what?
Ethical Decisions are based on what is best for the common good and Legal Decisions are based on statutes and case law.
565 / 1231
Which of the following topics is **not** typically addressed in culturally appropriate care?
The relevant issues are: communication, community engagement, workforce training, cultural respect, equitable treatment, etc..
566 / 1231
An 84-year-old woman with severe Alzheimer's disease at your facility has lost the ability to communicate and did not appoint a proxy. Family members do not agree on care plans. Select the **most appropriate** next step.
In order to determine the best course of action, with the most considerations, in cases such as there it's crucial to evaluate the options with the ethics committee.
567 / 1231
All of the following statements about advance directives are true, **except**:
Advanced directives only indicate preference for when capacity is lost and can therefore not be used as an indicator.
568 / 1231
In cases of futile care, what's the proper course of action?
It is recommend to negotiate with the patient and surrogates, and health care providers, if necessary. Use the Ethics Committee
569 / 1231
What is the primary guidance in cases of futile care?
Physicians do not have an obligation to deliver care that, in their best judgment, will not have a reasonable chance of benefiting the patient.
570 / 1231
Who acts on behalf of the patient when a patient cannot communicate decisions?
The individual who is legally authorized to make health care decisions on behalf of a patient who is unable to make or communicate decisions.
571 / 1231
In healthcare, who typically determines a patient's capacity to make decisions?
Capacity is normally determined by a physician or a ...psychiatric review.
572 / 1231
Within the context of healthcare decision-making, what does 'capacity' refer to?
Capacity refers to a mental ability to make a rational decision, including perceiving and appreciating relevant facts.
573 / 1231
Which is an example of life-sustaining treatment?
Life-sustaining includes intubation, mechanical ventilation, renal dialysis, artificial nutrition and hydration and antibiotics.
574 / 1231
Which of the following is NOT true regarding child abuse and neglect reporting?
Healthcare practitioners are mandatory reporters of child abuse.
575 / 1231
To whom does the Patient Self-Determination Act obligate entities to provide information regarding advance directives?
Hospitals, health maintenance organizations (HMOs), and home healthcare services are mandated to provide information regarding advance directives.
576 / 1231
Which of the following is NOT needed to enact a DNR?
A DNR does not require advanced directives to be enacted, only a physician's order, education, and clear policies.
577 / 1231
What is a key requirement for a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid?
DNR orders require a physician order and documentation in the medical record, along with clear policy and procedure.
578 / 1231
Under what condition can patient autonomy be set aside, according to the materials?
Autonomy is important, but it can be set aside if the patient lacks the capacity to make informed decisions.
579 / 1231
What documents may be included in legally sound advance directives?
Advance directives often include a living will, which outlines healthcare wishes, and a durable power of attorney, which appoints someone to make decisions.
580 / 1231
What is a key feature of an advance directive?
Advance directives are governed at the state level and provide instructions regarding a person's healthcare wishes.
581 / 1231
To what does the Patient Self-Determination Act NOT apply?
The Patient Self-Determination Act applies to hospitals, nursing homes, and health maintenance organizations but not private physician offices.
582 / 1231
What is a key element of the Patient Self-Determination Act?
The Patient Self-Determination Act focuses on ensuring that competent patients can make legally enforceable decisions about their health care.
583 / 1231
Which of the following actions demonstrates respecting a patient's moral obligations in healthcare?
Moral obligations in healthcare emphasize respecting patient privacy and communicating honestly about all aspects of their care.
584 / 1231
What does the ethical principle of non-maleficence primarily aim to do?
Non-maleficence centers on the commitment to not inflict harm and to prevent harm whenever possible.
585 / 1231
Which ethical principle concerns the ability of patients to make decisions without undue influence?
Autonomy emphasizes the importance of respecting an individual's ability to make informed decisions about their own care.
586 / 1231
Which type of law involves regulations and rules implemented by a federal or state agency?
Administrative law is created by agencies to provide direction for carrying out the purposes of acts it oversees.
587 / 1231
Which of the following is **not** a category of key regulations and laws in healthcare?
Key regulations and laws typically address patient care, data management, payment, employment, and workplace safety.
588 / 1231
Match the Term with the correct definition in risk management:
Identifying and tracking metrics can help provide effective tools and metrics for a risk register.
589 / 1231
Match Types include with Professionals Credentialing:
Allied healthcare Professionals Credentialing is mainly governed by licenses and regulations.
590 / 1231
Associate Duty of Care with its corresponding duty of loyalty:
The Duty of Care aspect of Risk Managment ensures a healthy enterprise and helps prevent damage.
591 / 1231
Associate each risk treatment with the most applicable technique:
Different situations require different approaches during risk-treatment plans.
592 / 1231
Connect the definitions to the phases of Risk Management:
Following these steps is essential to proper risk management.
593 / 1231
Indicate the type of risk related to an organization, and the factor that impacts that type of risk:
Each risk category is essential to incorporate into a Risk Management Program for a health organization.
594 / 1231
Associate the risk types with their definition relating to a healthcare organization's Enterprise Risk Management:
Healthcare organizations must understand the potential risks in each of these categories to create a more streamlined risk management environment.
595 / 1231
Associate the major functional areas of risk management with their focus:
A robust risk management framework includes multiple approaches. These functional areas should work together to create a culture of risk awareness in the facility.
596 / 1231
Connect the risk exposure to its corresponding element:
Risk exposure elements are used to understand the potential impact of an incident. Organizations evaluate these elements to identify how to treat potential occurrences.
597 / 1231
Match each element with the related element of a Risk Management Program (RMP):
An effective risk management program requires buy-in from all areas of the organization. Visibility and education promote engagement and help ensure success.
598 / 1231
Match the concepts with their core ideas:
Adverse outcomes often happen with medical interventions so make make sure that they are screened.
599 / 1231
Match the Credentialing and the Privileging with the correct action
Both boards and policies affect credentialing and its claim.
600 / 1231
Associate each of the following to its main process:
Credentialing and Privilidging are key aspects of all types of medical safety.
601 / 1231
Associate each of the following techniques with its Risk Type.
Knowing which tecnique to use for various risks is key to Risk Mitigation.
602 / 1231
Match the stages of Risk Management with the common method/practices within that stage:
The Risk Management stage should consist of everything from indentifying an incident to reporting said incident.
603 / 1231
Match the ERM Risk Domain to it's core concepts:
ERM Risk Domains cover everything from patient safety to overall reputation.
604 / 1231
Match the following statements of Risk Management and Risk Governance with the correct `Board Responsibility`:
The risk manager and the board should work together to ensure Value, Perils, and Consequences are all identified.
605 / 1231
Match the following risk management activities with the appropriate phase in the risk management process based on commonly accepted ERM framworks:
The phases of risk management form a continuous cycle, each equally important for the overall success of the program.
606 / 1231
Match the risk exposure with the appropriate risk exposure categories:
Understanding the different categories of risks is crucial for effective risk management planning and mitigation.
607 / 1231
Match the following elements of a Risk Management Program (RMP) with their descriptions:
A comprehensive RMP requires commitment at all levels, clear roles, both structured and ad-hoc activities, and continuous education.
608 / 1231
For policies and procedures (P&Ps) related to risk management, including cross-references to similar policies on related subjects should be omitted due to regulatory constraints.
Cross-references may provide a more complete context of the overall risk management strategy by pointing back to similar and related policies.
609 / 1231
When evaluating options in RM techniques, `Separation` is a means to increase the `likelihood` of potential losses.
`Separation` of assets reduces the potential severity of losses.
610 / 1231
The implementation of a formal risk identification system obviates the necessity for informal risk identification methods due to its structured and comprehensive approach.
Both formal and informal risk management methods provide distinct benefits in a broader strategy.
611 / 1231
During risk analysis, if a risk is deemed to have 'rare' likelihood and 'catastrophic' consequences, it invariably warrants the highest level of immediate mitigation, irrespective of cost considerations.
Mitigation prioritisation may factor in costs with a risk-benefit analysis.
612 / 1231
In Occurrence Reporting, the 'treatment' is a specific example of a reportable incident.
The prompt reporting of safety incidents is crucial for proactive risk mitigation.
613 / 1231
The assessment of organizational risk demands that all stakeholders are given equitable prospects for feedback, though their input need not be explicitly integrated.
Stakeholder input should drive the feedback loop of the risk process.
614 / 1231
A healthcare trustee's duty of loyalty permits them to leverage inside information for personal financial advantage, provided it does not directly harm the healthcare entity.
The duty of loyalty strictly prohibits healthcare trustees from using inside information for personal gain, regardless of direct harm to the entity.
615 / 1231
In the context of risk management, an organization's 'values' are typically defined by the potential financial exposure in a worst-case scenario.
An organization’s values usually refer to the principles and ethical standards that guide its operations, not its financial risks.
616 / 1231
In enterprise risk management, 'Risk Assessment' is the final phase where all potential risks are quantified economically using Monte Carlo simulations.
Risk assessment is not the end. Monitoring is still required. Also, risk assessment is a broader process involving identification, analysis, and evaluation, not simply economic quantification.
617 / 1231
The implementation of risk management policies and procedures removes the need to maintain confidentiality of ethical breaches.
Maintaining confidentiality and addressing ethical concerns are crucial aspects of risk management, even with implemented policies.
618 / 1231
It is unnecessary to quantify risk as long as you are able to identify the costs associated to it.
Risk assessments needs to identify the cost of risk and the tolerance for risk to be effective in the management process.
619 / 1231
Risk identification solely relies on traditional accident reports; employee interviews are not necessary.
Risk identification involves a variety of methods; an organization should conduct employee interviews during the process, as well.
620 / 1231
Maintain confidentiality and ethical issues as it relates to healthcare policy, procedures, and best practices, is not an important role of risk managers.
Risk managers have a responsibility to maintain and uphold confidentiality and ethical issues. They take responsibility for their work, including understanding the law and ethics surrounding it.
621 / 1231
An organization needs visibility and training on risk management, particularly in an orientation setting, to aid in organizational comittment.
Introducing and including training to an organization helps aid in organizational committment, where employees are aware of the Risk Management topics.
622 / 1231
Information & communication, risk assessment, and monitoring are all components of enterprise risk management.
Enterprise risk management is a framework that includes all of the components stated to help manage risk holistically.
623 / 1231
According to HIPPA Law, health trustees are obligated to ensure all reasonable and necessary steps are implemented to take compliance with all applicable laws and regulations.
Board members must ensure that the healthcare provider adheres to the laws and regulations set forth at the state, national, local, and federal level.
624 / 1231
The governing board's legal duty of loyalty requires the board to eliminate opportunities for personal financial gain using the entity's resources.
The duty of loyalty ensures that a board member will not use his/her position to make personal profits, or use the company's proprietary information for gain.
625 / 1231
A health care organization's risk management program should focus solely on financial risks.
Risk management should consider all forms of risk including financial, operational, and clinical risks.
626 / 1231
A risk manager's role includes identifying and applying risk-increasing techniques to an organization.
The risk manager identifies and applies appropriate risk financing techniques to the organization to *reduce* potential losses.
627 / 1231
A risk management plan needs updating only when significant organizational changes occur.
Risk management plans should be updated regularly, not just during significant organizational changes, to ensure ongoing effectiveness and relevance.
628 / 1231
Medical staff credentialing is primarily governed by CMS conditions of participation.
Medical Staff Credentialing is mainly governed by Accreditation standards and state law.
629 / 1231
A hospital-informed consent policy and procedure should provide clinical staff with methods for explaining the risks and benefits of specific Procedures.
A hospital-informed consent policy and procedure should provide clinical staff with general categories of procedures for which documented informed consent is required
630 / 1231
In assessing the impact of IT systems during a ransomware attack, monthly software updates are the highest priority.
The absence of a firewall is the highest priority as it leaves the system vulnerable.
631 / 1231
Legal and regulatory risks is managing the public image and reputation.
Strategic risks is managing the public image and reputation. Legal and regulatory risks include failure to identify, manage, and monitor legal & regulatory mandates.
632 / 1231
The primary scope of a peer review is to increase profitability, not for providing quality of care.
Peer review is an important tool for improving quality of patient care and for managing providers who may have quality of care issues. HCQIA established protection for data relating to adverse outcomes that were created or discussed during the peer review.
633 / 1231
A 'sentinel event' refers to a minor near-miss incident that poses no real threat to patient safety.
Not really. Sentinel events tracking; claims; indicators; complains; flowcharts and committee meetings are actually all components of **formal** risk identification systems.
634 / 1231
Effective implementation of a Risk Management (RM) program is possible without cooperation between RM professionals and managers.
Effective Risk Management (RM) implementation requires cooperation on technical decisions made by Risk Management (RM) professionals and managerial decisions made by managers.
635 / 1231
The scope of a risk management program always excludes employee-related risks like OSHA compliance.
The risks covered by the Risk Management Program may include employee-related risks
636 / 1231
A consultant prosthodontic is a degree that Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi doesn't have.
It is a degree that Dr. Sahar Khalil Alhajrassi has: SB-Prosth.
637 / 1231
A duty of care means you must not compete with the entity.
A duty of loyalty means you must not compete with the entity. Duty of care means you must act in good faith as a reasonable, prudent person.
638 / 1231
A hospital should not take all responsible steps to comply with laws and regulations.
The hospital has a legal duty to: direct all reasonable steps to be taken by medical staff to meet all legal standards as well as take all reasonable steps to comply with all laws and regulations.
639 / 1231
The terms 'incident reporting' and 'occurence reporting' are interchangable.
Reporting incidents and reporting occurrences are two separate things. An occurence is an unexpected medical intervention or care, where an incident is staff giving clear guidelines to a reportable procedure.
640 / 1231
Business continuity risks only pertain to financial losses and not to essential functions.
Business continuity risks encompass various factors including essential functions, incident command, mitigation, and recovery.
641 / 1231
A risk assessment matrix solely considers the frequency of an event, not the potential impact.
A risk assessment matrix typically considers both the likelihood (or frequency) of an event and the potential impact (or severity) to determine the level of risk.
642 / 1231
One of the key attributes of a Risk Management Program (RMP) is visibility.
Key attributes of a Risk Management Program include: Authority; visibility; communication; coordination and accountability.
643 / 1231
A risk management plan is required to be updated tri-annually to maintain compliance.
A formal timeline for updating the risk management plan is not specified. The plan should be updated regularly and reviewed to ensure it remains accurate and relevant.
644 / 1231
Risk management operations include claims processing, but not the development of a RM plan.
Risk management operations include developing a risk management plan and policy statement.
645 / 1231
According to risk management principles, it is acceptable to enrich yourself personally at the company's expense.
Acting with integrity is vital for reducing risk. The healthcare trustee’s duties include: No competing with the entity; No disclosure of confidential information; No usurping opportunities for personal financial gain and no personal enrichment at the entity expense.
646 / 1231
A risk management plan does not need to be updated regularly.
A risk management plan should be updated regularly (concerning purpose, overview, structure, and process of risk management activities).
647 / 1231
A risk management program's (RMP) primary purpose is to safeguard a Healthcare Organization's (HCO) assets against loss.
The primary goal of an RMP is indeed to protect an HCO's assets and minimize the impact of losses.
648 / 1231
When discussing business impact, the Board does not have a legal obligation to understand financial risks.
Part of the Board function is to understand business impact and what would occur if financial security or data was at risk.
649 / 1231
If the Board is under the impression that the organisation is running under compliance and security protocols it is unnecessary to request confirmation.
The Board is legally obligated to request confirmation that the organization is operating securely,.
650 / 1231
In the event of a catastrophic medical incident, the Risk Management Department are not responsible for liaising with the media.
In this event it is of paramount importance that an official press release is offered.
651 / 1231
It is required that the healthcare organization check physician sanctions.
Checking physician sanctions or legal issues is an important element of safety and transparency.
652 / 1231
If ransomware enters a system, a critical data finding involves the absence of a firewall between the network and hosted digital backup storage.
Without a firewall, threat actors can steal data, infect it with malware and demand monetary compensation.
653 / 1231
A professional liability insurance policy with an exclusion for telemedicine necessarily requires the addition of a specific endorsement.
If a provider does not obtain a specific endorsement, their coverage may not be included with telemedicine.
654 / 1231
A 'Physician Credentialing Policy' should not be developed amongst the Medical Staff and hospital administration.
The 'Physician Credentialing Policy' should be carefully developed amongst both parties.
655 / 1231
The hospital's credentialing policy should indicate whether medical staff individuals are required to secure malpractice insurance.
The hospital's policy on medical staff will indicate this.
656 / 1231
Medical staff credentialing is governed only by federal mandates and is not variable across different states.
Medical staff credentialing occurs on both the federal and state level, in alignment with federal mandates.
657 / 1231
Employee-related risks encompass elements like OSHA regulatory compliance.
OSHA, or occupational , health and safety guidelines, are employee related.
658 / 1231
Risk control implementations do not require collaboration.
Collaboration is necessary as risk affects many members of staff.
659 / 1231
There is no reason to follow the policy if it disrupts the routine workflow.
The hospital policy is in place for patient and hospital safety.
660 / 1231
Risk can not be quantified.
Risk can be quantified, which is very important for documentation purposes.
661 / 1231
An efficient Risk Management team avoids collaborating with other departments to promote a strong safety culture.
It is pertinent that the Risk Management team builds a collaborative environment for quality patient care.
662 / 1231
Healthcare organizations must follow legislative regulatory mandates.
All healthcare organizations must follow legislative regulatory guidelines.
663 / 1231
Control activities are part of Enterprise Risk Management, as well as assessing risk.
Control activities are part of Enterprise Risk Management framework.
664 / 1231
A risk assessment does not need to be performed in the event of a flood.
The building infrastructure, patient data and staff safety must be secured after the event of a catastrophe.
665 / 1231
Risk categories include patient care, financial and regulatory categories.
These are all fundamental categories to a risk management program.
666 / 1231
The Risk Management Department should not be reviewing federal regulations.
It is required that the Risk Management Department is reviewing federal regulations.
667 / 1231
The Joint Commission does not provide standards related to patients’ safety.
The Joint Commission is a health organization which is highly involved in patient safety.
668 / 1231
Risk mitigation and risk transferring is the same thing.
Risk mitigation consists of taking steps to reduce it. Risk transference moves risks to a third party.
669 / 1231
A hospital’s Risk Management Department does need training and supervising staff.
The hospital's Risk Management Department needs well-trained and supervised staff for effective risk management.
670 / 1231
The element of 'communication' as an attribute of RM programs refers only to communication with external regulatory bodies.
Communication in RM programs involves all stakeholders, not only external regulatory individuals.
671 / 1231
Business continuity plans prioritize essential functions and recovery strategies.
Business continuity is about planning essential functions mitigation and recovery, which includes essential functions and recovery.
672 / 1231
Risk assessment in health care is solely based on the volume of patient complaints received.
Risk assessment considers severity, probability, and many risk factors, not just the volume of patient complaints received.
673 / 1231
Risk financing involves determining the creditworthiness of patients.
Risk financing involves managing the financial impact of potential losses through methods like insurance strategies.
674 / 1231
The assessment of 'values, perils and consequences of loss' is not applicable in risk management.
Assessing values, perils and consequences is a fundamental step in risk management, not inapplicable.
675 / 1231
Healthcare organizations are able to deny patient access to care based on their socioeconomic status.
Healthcare organizations are unable to deny care based on socioeconomic status or other protected factors.
676 / 1231
Healthcare organizations are required to report all medical errors to the Joint Commission, regardless of severity.
While reporting certain events is important, healthcare organizations usually have criteria for what needs to be reported.
677 / 1231
The EMTALA regulation is specifically designed to outline rules and procedures for patient discharge.
EMTALA relates to the appropriate triage, stabilization and transfer of patients.
678 / 1231
A hospital must provide staff education and training on risk management topics only upon initial hire.
Hospitals should offer ongoing education and training related to risk management to ensure optimal patient care.
679 / 1231
In the context of risk management, 'perils' refer to the values and ethics that guide an organization's decisions.
In risk management, 'perils' refer to the causes of potential losses, not an organizations values.
680 / 1231
Peer review is mandated by federal law to oversee quality of patient care and is not protected from discovery.
Peer review is both an important measure for quality and also is protected from discovery.
681 / 1231
Focused occurrence reporting' provides specific guidelines and examples of reportable incidents.
Focused occurrence reporting includes staff being provided clear guidelines and specific examples of reportable medical incidents.
682 / 1231
An incident report is consistent with the routine care of a particular patient.
An incident report documents events inconsistent with the routine care of a particular patient.
683 / 1231
Loss prevention focuses on decreasing the severity of potential losses.
Loss prevention focuses on reducing the likelihood of losses, not the severity. Loss reduction focuses on severity.
684 / 1231
The Governing Board carries ultimate legal responsibility for all aspects of the healthcare entity.
The governing board is responsible for all aspects of a healthcare entity, including quality of care.
685 / 1231
A risk register is used for identifying and treating risks.
A risk register tracks identified risks and their planned treatments, not just identification.
686 / 1231
A risk management plan is not required to be updated regularly once established.
A risk management plan should be updated regularly to remain effective and relevant.
687 / 1231
The primary purpose of an RM program is to safeguard the HCO's assets against loss and reduce the impact of losses when they occur.
Risk management (RM) programs aim to protect assets and minimize the impact of losses.
688 / 1231
If leadership wants to improve the patient safety culture within the organization what action can be achieved most effectively?
Implementing an organizational culture where all employees can feel psychologically safe to report errors and have open discussions develops the team and also shows support to those that may need assistance with processes. Sharing staff names is inappropriate and detrimental. Incident reporting supports identifying issues.
689 / 1231
What is the greatest value of a culture of transparency with reporting outcomes and process measures?
The greatest effect from complete transparency involves developing the organization for constant improvement. Transparency provides opportunities to learn and supports accountability.
690 / 1231
A Risk Manager wants to improve the risk management program. Which of the following practices and processes creates the most sustainable program?
The best and most sustainable approach includes data-driven decision making with collaboration. This method tends to identify blind spots in the organization and provides opportunities for more collaboration.
691 / 1231
What action is most appropriate for Risk Management in response to an increase of malpractice claims?
Policies to address increased malpractice claims along with staff training supports a culture of increasing quality and controls the issues at hand.
692 / 1231
How can Risk Management improve patient safety and reduce medical errors over time?
Long-term improvements in patient safety and reductions in medical errors come from creating a proactive learning system that uses data to make evidence based decisions.
693 / 1231
Within the risk assessment matrix which would be considered the most dangerous outcome and require the most intervention?
The best response involves reviewing the outcomes of the chart that shows risk levels. An event rated as 'Rare' with a 'Catastrophic' would require immediate focus, assuming there are no other events happening at a higher level.
694 / 1231
Healthcare risk management uses performance activity measures, outcome measures, and financial measures to assess the effectiveness of a Risk Management Program. Which measure below reflects financial measure?
The best response involves measuring financial performance. Financial activities are often easily measured by metrics like 'the total expenses for worker's compensation claims'.
695 / 1231
In the context of developing a robust patient safety culture, what advanced strategy most effectively fosters accountability at all levels of a healthcare organization?
A 'just culture' that balances individual accountability with system-level improvements, supported by proactive risk assessments and continuous feedback mechanisms, most effectively fosters accountability.
696 / 1231
What considerations are most critical when developing outcome measures to assess the effectiveness of risk management activities related to patient safety in a large, integrated healthcare system?
A balanced scorecard approach, including clinical outcomes, patient-reported outcomes, process measures, and cost-effectiveness metrics, adjusted for patient complexity and system-level interactions, is most critical in assessing risk management effectiveness.
697 / 1231
Which of the following reflects the highest level of sophistication in applying Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) within a complex hospital setting?
The highest level of sophistication involves dynamic, cross-functional FMEA, incorporating real-time data feeds and predictive modeling to anticipate and prevent failures across interconnected systems.
698 / 1231
Considering the complexities inherent in healthcare settings, what advanced analytical technique enables the most comprehensive evaluation of the interactions and dependencies among multiple risk factors, facilitating a deeper understanding of potential cascading failures?
Fault tree analysis, combined with Bayesian network modeling, provides the most comprehensive evaluation of complex interactions and dependencies among risk factors, facilitating a deeper understanding of potential cascading failures.
699 / 1231
When implementing risk reduction strategies related to technical and managerial decisions, which approach most effectively balances the need for standardization with the flexibility required to adapt to evolving clinical practices and technological advancements?
A framework of evidence-based guidelines, incorporating continuous feedback, adaptation, and peer review, provides the optimal balance between standardization and flexibility in risk reduction strategies.
700 / 1231
Considering the increasing interconnectedness of healthcare systems, which strategy would best address the systemic risks associated with supply chain disruptions and ensure continuity of critical services?
A resilient supply chain network, incorporating real-time monitoring, predictive analytics, and contingency plans, is the most effective strategy for ensuring continuity of critical services in interconnected healthcare systems.
701 / 1231
What is the role of Bayesian networks in advancing decision-making processes related to risk management within a healthcare setting?
Bayesian networks provide probabilistic reasoning under uncertainty, facilitating dynamic risk assessments that incorporate new evidence and expert opinions, enhancing decision-making.
702 / 1231
How can healthcare facilities leverage actuarial science to improve their Risk Management program?
Actuarial science allows for the statistical forecasting of future losses, optimizing insurance coverage, and establishing appropriate self-insurance reserves, thus improving the Risk Management program.
703 / 1231
Within a healthcare organization, what strategy represents the most advanced approach to integrating ethical considerations into the risk management program?
A proactive ethics consultation service integrated with risk assessments represents the most advanced approach to embedding ethical considerations into the risk management program.
704 / 1231
In the context of incident reporting systems, what enhancement would most significantly improve the ability to discern systemic vulnerabilities and prevent future adverse events?
Implementing a natural language processing engine for incident report analysis provides the most significant improvement in identifying systemic vulnerabilities and preventing future adverse events.
705 / 1231
Considering the complexities of healthcare regulatory compliance, which methodology would provide the most robust and adaptive framework for proactively identifying and mitigating emerging regulatory risks?
A real-time regulatory intelligence system, combined with predictive analytics, is the most robust and adaptive framework for proactively managing regulatory risks.
706 / 1231
When evaluating strategies for integrating risk management with healthcare organization governance, which approach most effectively ensures alignment with strategic objectives and accountability at all levels?
The most effective approach is a matrix structure, which ensures risk management is embedded throughout the organization, with oversight from a centralized department reporting directly to the board.
707 / 1231
In the context of risk financing within healthcare operations, which strategy exemplifies the most sophisticated approach to optimizing capital allocation while mitigating potential losses?
Sophisticated risk financing involves using predictive analytics combined with captive insurance to optimize capital allocation and mitigate losses.
708 / 1231
Which situation would be considered the highest risk for an organization?
Medical staff is held to a higher standard.
709 / 1231
What is the most difficult consideration about including flexibility into P&Ps and policies?
P&Ps must also provide flexibility.
710 / 1231
Which statement outlines the appropriate way to evaluate and mitigate risk?
The healthcare facility should choose multiple metrics in order to improve strategy.
711 / 1231
How is duty of care balanced alongside medical staff's responsibility to provide competent and safe medical practices?
Act in good faith as a reasonable or prudent staff.
712 / 1231
Which is the most effective way to improve patient safety culture and reduce medical errors in the long term?
Educational Action Plans facilitate continuous learning and improvement.
713 / 1231
In managing risks related to credentialing and privileging, how can healthcare organizations best address potential conflicts of interest among members of the credentialing committee?
Members must abstain from decisions where they have a conflict of interest.
714 / 1231
How should a hospital-informed consent policy and procedure address the management of patients who refuse recommended treatment due to religious beliefs or cultural practices?
Policies should emphasize culturally sensitive communication and thorough documentation to respect patient autonomy.
715 / 1231
Considering the dual goals of protecting peer review actions and promoting quality improvement, what strategy best balances confidentiality with transparency?
Sharing anonymized findings identifies systemic issues and promotes learning while protecting confidentiality.
716 / 1231
In the process of implementing and monitoring risk management policies and procedures, which strategy is most likely to foster a proactive and adaptive approach to risk mitigation?
A continuous feedback loop provides a proactive and adaptive approach, enabling policies and procedures to evolve with emerging risks and best practices.
717 / 1231
Given increasing concerns about data breaches and cybersecurity threats, what is the most strategic approach for integrating HAZMAT (Hazardous Materials) programs with broader healthcare safety programs?
Integrating HAZMAT protocols with IT incident response plans addresses data breaches resulting from environmental hazards or infrastructure failures.
718 / 1231
When distinguishing between 'occurrence reporting' and 'occurrence screening', what is the most critical factor that determines which method to use for a specific situation?
The key distinction relates to pre-defined criteria: occurrence reporting relies on clear guidelines, whereas occurrence screening involves broader monitoring against a defined list of patient occurrences.
719 / 1231
How can healthcare organizations most effectively foster a culture of accountability within their Risk Management Program?
Establishing clear lines of authority, promoting transparency, and implementing mechanisms for feedback and continuous improvement increase risk effectiveness.
720 / 1231
What is the most effective approach for implementing risk reduction strategies to address technical and managerial decisions within a healthcare organization?
A cross-functional team fosters collaboration to develop strategies that address both technical feasibility and operational impact.
721 / 1231
How should healthcare facilities use performance activity measures, outcome measures, and financial measures to evaluate the effectiveness of a Risk Management Program?
A balanced scorecard integrates performance activity, outcome, and financial measures to provide a comprehensive assessment.
722 / 1231
When structuring a Risk Management Operations program, what is the most effective strategy for balancing loss prevention, claims management, and risk financing to optimize resource allocation?
A comprehensive, integrated approach minimizes the overall cost of risk by aligning strategies and optimizing resource allocation.
723 / 1231
In addressing risk exposure related to Values, Perils, and Consequence of Loss, how can a Risk Management Department most effectively integrate ethical considerations into its program?
A formal ethics framework guides decision-making, incorporates stakeholder values, and promotes transparency in risk management processes.
724 / 1231
Considering the evolving landscape of healthcare regulations and accreditation standards, what methodology would best enable a Risk Management Department to maintain an up-to-date and effective risk management plan?
A continuous monitoring and improvement process is vital for adapting to evolving healthcare regulations and enhancing risk management effectiveness.
725 / 1231
When defining the authority and role of the Risk Management Department within a healthcare organization, which approach most effectively balances autonomy with accountability?
Sharing accountability across departments ensures collaboration and prevents the risk manager from being solely responsible.
726 / 1231
Within the framework of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM), what is the most strategic approach for a healthcare organization to address risks associated with emerging technologies, such as artificial intelligence in diagnostics?
Emerging technologies needs a strategic risks evaluation and controlled pilot programs before fully integrating to health operations.
727 / 1231
When evaluating the scope of a Risk Management Program (RMP), what consideration reflects the highest level of strategic alignment with patient safety and organizational goals?
An effective RMP integrates past experiences and proactively addresses areas of vulnerability to prevent future occurrences.
728 / 1231
Which scenario represents a 'very high risk' according to the Risk Assessment Matrix?
High likelihood of an event with severe outcome(s).
729 / 1231
What is the significance of 'Essential functions' in business continuity risks?
Essential functions are those that must be maintained during a service disruption.
730 / 1231
What is the primary purpose of 'Focused Occurrence Reporting'?
Staff are provided clear guidelines and specific examples of reportable incidents.
731 / 1231
How does the Healthcare Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA) protect certain peer review actions?
HCQIA provides clear standards and processes for objectively assessing the quality of care provided by medical professionals.
732 / 1231
Which of these risks is typically addressed by HAZMAT programs?
HAZMAT programs address environmental safety.
733 / 1231
You are creating a Risk Assessment Matrix. You determine an event is `Likely` to occur, and the Consequence would be `Moderate`. Using the matrix shown, what is the risk score?
Using the Risk Assessment Matrix, `Likely` (4) and `Moderate` (3) yields a value of 12: (4 * 3 = 12)
734 / 1231
What is the role of a risk manager in educating the board?
A risk manager educates the board by providing new member orientation and by periodically presenting RM topics to the board.
735 / 1231
Which of the following is true regarding incident reports?
Incident reports are an objective, coded, and analyzed data source used to improve a healthcare risk management program.
736 / 1231
A series of minor issues or inconsistencies in a healthcare setting, which individually may seem insignificant, would be categorized how?
A series of minor issues is best categorized as indicators. Indicators point to potential problems and should be addressed.
737 / 1231
In healthcare risk management, what is the primary aim of 'loss prevention and reduction'?
Loss prevention and reduction strategies aim to reduce both the likelihood and the impact of potential losses, making it a proactive approach to risk management.
738 / 1231
What is the duty of loyalty for healthcare trustees?
The duty of loyalty requires trustees to prioritize the interests of the healthcare organization above their own, avoiding conflicts of interest and ensuring all actions benefit the entity.
739 / 1231
Which of the following best characterizes the 'Due Process' element in addressing risks related to credentialing and privileging?
Medical staff bylaws that include a hearing and appeal process are a better solution because they prioritize both fairness and accuracy in decision-making.
740 / 1231
What is one of the key considerations when facilities choose an appropriate Risk Management Program?
The size, scope of offered resources are important factors to consider when creating an effective RM program that fits the needs and capabilities of the facility.
741 / 1231
What is one of the most important functions of a hospital board, in relation to providing quality of patient care?
The Board has a responsibility to assign medical staff reasonable authority to ensure that patients receive proper and professional medical care.
742 / 1231
What is a primary function of an 'occurrence reporting' system?
An occurrence reporting system is used to document any unexpected patient medical intervention, treatment or intensity of care outside the norm.
743 / 1231
How can healthcare facilities leverage education action plans to improve their Risk Management program?
Education action plans are most effective when they target the specific activities that constitute risk management, such as incident reporting, patient safety protocols, and compliance with regulations, and when they are tailored to address areas where improvement is needed.
744 / 1231
In the context of risk management, what is the goal of 'separation' as a risk treatment technique?
Separation involves dispersing assets or operations to different locations to reduce the potential impact of a single event, such as a natural disaster or a security breach.
745 / 1231
Which statement best describes how a hospital maintains compliance with established policies and procedures?
Compliance is best achieved through regular measurement, performance comparison, and keeping Policies and Procedures current with regular updates.
746 / 1231
What is the key focus of Risk Management Operations?
Risk management operations are centered around proactively managing risks through various strategies, including loss prevention, claims management, and ensuring regulatory compliance and Bioethics.
747 / 1231
What is the primary objective of a Risk Management Program (RMP) in relation to Values, Perils, and Consequence of Loss?
Identifying risk exposure allows for the implementation of targeted strategies to reduce the likelihood and impact of potential losses.
748 / 1231
What are the important elements for Risk Identification Systems -- in Formal style?
These provide documentation.
749 / 1231
How can a Risk Assessment Matrix determine levels of risk?
Determines levels of risk.
750 / 1231
Why should you develop outcome measures to assess effectiveness of RM activities?
This generates feedback on what RM can contribute.
751 / 1231
Why is 'maintain confidentiality and ethical issues' relevant?
This relates to patient rights, and regulatory compliance.
752 / 1231
What are the common strategies for dealing with identified risks?
Risk avoidance and sharing
753 / 1231
What should a hospital-informed consent policy and procedure indicate?
A hospital-informed consent policy and procedure steps to properly explain a procedure to a patient.
754 / 1231
Which statement is correct?
Credentialing/Privileging is about authorization.
755 / 1231
What is the HCQIA established to protect regarding peer review?
Protection for data is secured for adverse outcomes.
756 / 1231
Of the healthcare safety programs, with which is 'HAZMAT' associated?
HAZMAT is a component of environmental planning.
757 / 1231
What is the purpose of education action plans?
Education action plans address medical activities.
758 / 1231
What is the purpose of well-written guidelines for managing risks in Policies & Procedures (P&Ps)?
Policies should conform to a standard format.
759 / 1231
What is the objective when a hospital implements & monitors?
Decisions here are based on technical/managerial decisions.
760 / 1231
A hospital decides to close its pediatric unit due to financial constraints, transferring all pediatric patients to a nearby hospital. Which risk management technique is being applied?
By closing the pediatric unit, the hospital is avoiding risks associated with pediatric care.
761 / 1231
When prioritizing assessed risks, what should an initial risk analysis provide?
The initial means is for prioritizing risks.
762 / 1231
How does 'occurrence reporting' differ from 'occurrence screening'?
Reporting looks for unexpected events.
763 / 1231
What is the purpose of incident reporting?
Incident reporting is any happening with patient care.
764 / 1231
What characterizes 'high-volume' events when identifying and analyzing loss exposure?
High-volume is classified as minimal, but frequent.
765 / 1231
A healthcare system experiences frequent data breaches that expose patient information. Which type of ERM risk is most directly highlighted by this situation?
Operational risks refer to employee errors, or failed internal processes, people, or systems.
766 / 1231
Which factor helps an organization select an appropriate Risk Management Program?
The amount of available resources helps select programs.
767 / 1231
What is the first step in a Risk Management Program, regarding risk exposure?
The first step is to identify and analyze risk exposure.
768 / 1231
How does the Risk Manager aid the board?
RM helps the boards by providing oversight responsibilities.
769 / 1231
What signifies the liability concern for board members as it relates to 'corporate' actions?
Environmental pollution can create liability for board members.
770 / 1231
What is the meaning of 'duty of care'?
All people in a position of power must act reasonably, and in good faith.
771 / 1231
What is the legal duty for healthcare trustees?
The legal duty of healthcare trustees is to set organizational policy.
772 / 1231
What is the main goal of including 'essential functions' in business continuity risks?
Knowing essential functions maintains workflow.
773 / 1231
What is the primary focus of managing employee-related risks in healthcare?
Employee-related risk involves safety, and wellbeing in the workplace.
774 / 1231
Which of the following exemplifies a risk associated with medical staff?
Credentialing and privileging are processes designed to ensure a medical professional is qualified.
775 / 1231
Which risk is an example of patient care-related risk?
Patient care related risks encompass all aspects of direct patient care.
776 / 1231
Which element falls under the scope of a Risk Management Program?
The scope of an RM program includes risks related to employees.
777 / 1231
Which of the following is a key attribute of a successful Risk Management Program?
It is vital for a risk management program to have authority.
778 / 1231
What is the purpose of risk reduction strategies in a Risk Management Program?
Risk reduction strategies help organizations proactively deal with threats by minimizing the damage.
779 / 1231
Which of the following can evaluate RM program effectiveness?
Effectiveness needs to be measured using a few factors, including performance activity.
780 / 1231
Which activity is essential when managing risk within a healthcare organization?
One major functional area of risk management is training and supervising staff.
781 / 1231
What is the primary reason for having accurate and comprehensive job descriptions for risk management staff?
Well-defined roles and responsibilities for each staff member ensure seamless and effective workflow in resolving crises and risks.
782 / 1231
Why is regularly updating a risk management plan important for healthcare organizations?
Healthcare is a dynamic field, mandating frequent RMS reviews to ensure alignment with current guidelines and organizational changes.
783 / 1231
Why is organizational commitment and support essential for a Risk Management Program (RMP)?
Organizational commitment is a cornerstone of RMP success, fostering a culture of safety and accountability.
784 / 1231
Which element is most indicative of enterprise risk management?
Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) considers all forms of risks across an organization, and manages them holistically.
785 / 1231
Which of the following best describes the role of a risk manager in healthcare operations?
Risk managers focus on identifying and mitigating potential risks to an organization.
786 / 1231
Match each type of Exposure of Healthcare Entities with a key aspect of loss mitigation
Healthcare entities, owing to the complexities and risks inherent in the provision of patient care, can all see high numbers of claims. It is therefore key for each entity to mitigate potential routes to libility.
787 / 1231
Match the document type from the pre-trial procedures with the content that ought to be present:
The pre-trial procedure is the bedrock upon which the case is built, therefore each element is critical to the proceeding.
788 / 1231
Match each stage of litigation management with its primary objective:
Each step of the litigation mangement process must be optimized in order to ensure an appropriate outcome.
789 / 1231
Match the following elements to consider when selecting expert witnesses with their primary relevance to complex litigation management:
Expert witnesses should be appropriately chosen as they can be pivotal in determining the success or failure of a case.
790 / 1231
Match each Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) method with its most defining characteristic:
The goal of ADR is to arrive at an acceptable settlement while minimizing expenses, thus minimizing the economic and brand impacts of litigation.
791 / 1231
Match the following 'Legal Theories' with their appropriate description:
Legal Theories are a framework by which potential liability and negligence can be assessed.
792 / 1231
Match the following 'Liability Areas' within Healthcare with a situation that would describe it:
Healthcare entities all have different areas of potential liability. Each entity must have a clear framework for the management and minimization of claims.
793 / 1231
Match the following elements of 'Due Diligence' regarding financial processes with their appropriate next step:
Performing 'Due Diligence' is key in the mitigation of current and potential claims.
794 / 1231
Match the following stages in the claims management process (as outlined in the 'new' model) with their correct description:
The claims management process must be followed rigorously in order to optimise outcomes. Failure at any single stage can lead to an inadequate or incorrect outcome.
795 / 1231
Match the following elements of a claims management program with their appropriate description:
A well-structured claims management program is crucial for minimizing financial loss, informing risk mitigation, and protecting the organization's reputation. A mismatch in any of these areas can lead to unexpected costs or ineffective risk mitigation.
796 / 1231
Match the step with its description in defense firm performance:
Healthcare entities can control the costs of litigation with risk management and quality defense firms.
797 / 1231
Match the actions that a risk manager can take to mitigate the negative impact of litigation stress on health care professionals:
Healthcare litigation can be stressful for healthcare professionals, and understanding mitigation strategies is key.
798 / 1231
Match the type of liability exposure with the healthcare entity where it is most commonly seen:
Different healthcare entities have different liability exposures depending on the services they provide.
799 / 1231
Match the legal theory with its correct description in healthcare claims:
Legal theories are used to establish liability and determine the responsible party when a claim arises.
800 / 1231
Match the claims management process step with its description:
The claims management process is a systematic approach to handling claims from the initial report to final resolution.
801 / 1231
Match the following facts about a corporate to its impact.
Corporations should never be found disregarding and taking advantage of customers. Be vigilant in training employees and ensuring proper procedures is the number 1 goal.
802 / 1231
Match the following issues to a potential solution during a Due Diligence.
Due Diligence helps provide proper framework for healthcare organizations to ensure proper protection and coverage of members.
803 / 1231
Match the following items of a healthcare service to its common problem.
Common mistakes or issues usually arise because of oversights. Ensure a double and even triple check exists to mitigate this.
804 / 1231
Match the following list to its potential action to mitigate stress on employees.
Ensure that employee safety and proper risk reduction plans are taking place to assist employees.
805 / 1231
Match the phrase to its description for ADRs.
ADRs can sometimes lead to a better and smoother process for both parties, as well as savings in time and money.
806 / 1231
Match the following elements of Claims File Management to its description:
Proper planning will ensure there are no lost or missing pieces during claims file management.
807 / 1231
Match each formal vs informal system to its description:
Differences in the system allow organizations to best tackle issues from multiple facets.
808 / 1231
Match each term to its corresponding description within coverage determination:
Coverage determinations help lay out what actions are taken in different scenarios.
809 / 1231
Match the following phrases during litigation to its appropriate step in procedure.
Trial procedures are meant to ensure fairness and lawfulness in the court of law.
810 / 1231
Match the following terms liability determinations with its appropriate type.
Liability determinations are put in place to protect directors, officers, and employees within healthcare organizations.
811 / 1231
Match the following terms related to reporting with the appropriate legal requirements.
Reporting guidelines exist in professional industries to ensure any activity is dealt with to the fullest degree and due diligence is satisfied.
812 / 1231
Match the following document requirements to the document in a claim.
Accurate record-keeping and adherence to established policies ensure fair risk mitigation in the event of an incident.
813 / 1231
Match the legal theory with its definition:
Legal theories help determine who is liable when something goes wrong during healthcare delivery.
814 / 1231
Match the type of healthcare entity with its common liability exposure:
Different types of healthcare entities have unique liability exposures based on the services they provide and the populations they serve.
815 / 1231
Match the following steps for claims management in the correct order.
Claims management follows a structured process to ensure each claim is handled appropriately and efficiently from start to finish.
816 / 1231
The risk of the professional is required to retain a legal counsel is there is a claim made policy in place.
The risk professional is to notify a carrier if there is a claim made policy in place.
817 / 1231
Providing support through all phases of the litigation process *will not* mitigate negative effects, such as stress.
Providing support during litigation benefits health care providers and is an example of mitigating stress.
818 / 1231
A notification of claims is when an ER physician dumps a patient.
A notification of claims is the moment to report neglect and abandonment.
819 / 1231
The only advantage over a trial is the negotiation of the third party.
Negotiation includes three advantages over trial: economical, quicker, and less hostile.
820 / 1231
A *speedy driver* hits a child while driving *without* headlights is a form of *Res Ispa Loquitur*.
A *speedy driver* hits a child while driving *without* headlights is a form of *Negligence Per Se*.
821 / 1231
Insurance coverage information, as part of claim file management, is not relevant to insurers.
Both the policy *and* corresponding insurers will require the coverage information.
822 / 1231
Due diligence in litigation solely involves assessing the legal aspects of an organization.
Due diligence includes assessing the legal _and_ financial review.
823 / 1231
In claims management, a Demurrer motion is when the plaintiff requests to admit allegations of the defendant.
In claims management, a Demurrer motion is when the *defendant* requests to admit allegations of the *plaintiff* and request their dismissal.
824 / 1231
In an Emergency Medical Service, false imprisonment includes restraining someone.
False imprisonment can include restraining someone without consent.
825 / 1231
In a case of apparent agency, privileges for physicians are NOT considered to be an independent contractor
Physicians with hospital privileges are considered to be independent contractors.
826 / 1231
A hospital cannot be sued for corporate negligence.
A hospital can be sued for corporate negligence related to known defects, patient injury, and resource allocation.
827 / 1231
The insurer and the insured have the same responsibilities when handling lawsuits.
Insurers and the insured have separate responsibilities when handling lawsuits. The insurance company has its own responsibilities, and the insured has their own.
828 / 1231
Taxonomy is *not* relevant for benchmarking and loss runs.
Taxonomy *is* relevant and should be in place for benchmarking and loss runs.
829 / 1231
The *Respondeat Superior* doctrine solely applies to intentional torts committed by employees.
The *Respondeat Superior* doctrine extends an employer's liability to negligent as well as intentional acts committed by their employees within the scope of employment.
830 / 1231
A claim is best managed when reserves are set after sufficient data have been obtained.
Setting reserves requires sufficient, accurate data so an appropriate amount can be reserved.
831 / 1231
In *Res Ipsa Loquitur*, the injured person can't sue the employer for the full amount.
Negligence means an injured person _can_ sue the employer for the full amount.
832 / 1231
Liability determination aims to identify the responsible party, regardless of liability type.
Liability determination identifies the *type* of liability at hand: general, professional, or employment practices.
833 / 1231
'Loss Covered' refers to whether the cause of the incident is covered by the policy.
'Loss Covered' refers to whether the cause of the incident (e.g., negligence or intentional act) falls under the scope of events covered by the insurance policy.
834 / 1231
General liability covers professional malpractice.
General liability and professional liability are distinct. General liability protects against incidents like slips and falls, while professional liability covers negligence in professional services.
835 / 1231
The insurer always waives its rights while a claim is being investigated and defended.
The insurer ***does not*** waive its rights while a claim is investigated and defended.
836 / 1231
Under the principle of *Res Ipsa Loquitur*, the burden of proof shifts to the defendant.
In cases where _Res Ipsa Loquitur_ applies ('the thing speaks for itself'), it's understood that the incident wouldn't have happened unless someone was negligent, shifting the onus to the defendant to prove otherwise.
837 / 1231
A 'Lawsuit' refers to informal settlement discussions outside of court.
A 'Lawsuit' is a formal legal action that is filed in court.
838 / 1231
Analysis and classification of a claim involves using subjective opinions.
Analysis and classification of a claim involves using facts and objective criteria, not subjective opinions.
839 / 1231
A document checklist is not necessary when managing claims.
A document checklist is a key element in claims management, used to verify that all necessary data has been collected.
840 / 1231
The risk manager's role in claims is solely based on the organization's financial data.
The risk manager's role is based on the nature of the organization and its insurance program.
841 / 1231
In claims management, 'Identification' is the final step in the process.
'Identification' is the first step in the claims management process, followed by investigation, analysis, and resolution.
842 / 1231
The claims management program must have commercial insurance coverage.
A claims management program can be designed around self-insured or commercially insured scenarios.
843 / 1231
A claim is a formal notification seeking monetary damages for an alleged injury.
A claim indeed represents a formal notification where monetary compensation is pursued for a claimed injury.
844 / 1231
If HIPAA applies, compliance with medical records may proceed regardless of the circumstances.
While records are commonly needed in modern record release, the patient needs to always be notified regarding the opportunity.
845 / 1231
In corporate liabilities , it is most reasonable to hire an orthopedic surgeon to explain to the lawyer involving breast care cancer.
It is more common practice to hire specific personal that are closely related to their expert testimony.
846 / 1231
In the event that there is a subpoena, a lawyer knows the most so it should be directly passed with the lawyer rather than any action happening.
If there is a subpoena, a lawyer knows the most so it should be directly passed with the lawyer rather than any action happening.
847 / 1231
A hospital is responsible even though they were not involved if the lawsuit involves a contracted doctor instead of employed.
Hospitals are sometimes liable through implied duties depending if the contact is employed or not. Also are based on if they were involved or not.
848 / 1231
In the list of "four Ds, the damage death for an employee is the 'duty' phase.
Four Ds are: duty, duty breaching, direct injury, damage. The damage death for an employee is the damage phase.
849 / 1231
An 'unstructured process' in third party dispute resolution means that nobody is authorized to create documents.
Unstructured is about making sure both parties are involved in negotiations, not just one.
850 / 1231
If there is an unintended surgical item in a patient, strict liability is automatically the result.
Unintended surgical lawsuits are res ipsa loquitur given that negligence is clearly caused.
851 / 1231
If a healthcare enterprise receives a written demand for compensation, a risk professional needs to first analyze the situation.
Risk management team always needs to start with carrier first and then analyze.
852 / 1231
Integrated Delivery Systems (IDS) can cannot be held vicariously liable by anyone outside of contracts.
If a provider is hired as an independent contractor ,the employee cannot sue the hospital.
853 / 1231
If a provider is employed at a hospital, a patient and their family is authorized to sue a hospital even if they were not involved in the claim.
854 / 1231
The *only* role of a risk manager regarding outside counsel is ensuring the firm bills hourly and at or below an expected amount
While risk managers need to manage cost, they need to confirm and assist with the appropriate paperwork and steps taken.
855 / 1231
In any medical setting, a claim that results in a case will require a 'pre trial' procedure.
Pre-trial procedures are legal precedents to any court order.
856 / 1231
It is not required to clarify reporting PCEs.
It is require to report PCEs to clarify the requirements.
857 / 1231
The *only* essential element in assessing corporate negligence is determining whether the health facility was aware of similar past incidents
While a history of incidents would be helpful to the claim, the plaintiff still need some other evidence.
858 / 1231
A self-insured risk manager has major responsibility for their case.
A self insured risk manager always must be responsible for their own cases.
859 / 1231
In investigation outside or outside, there is a need to get a written description of hippa in medical investigations.
In investigation there is a need to get a written description of hippa to keep confidentiality.
860 / 1231
The final step in a lawsuit is always an agreed upon settlement.
A case needs to be negotiated whether it is settled or not.
861 / 1231
In the context of legal theories, 'strict liability' is typically the most relevant theory for cases involving retained surgical sponges.
Res ipsa loquitur applies when an injury wouldn't have occurred if someone wasn't negligent.
862 / 1231
A claims-made insurance policy is triggered by an occurrence during the policy period.
A claims-made policy requires that both the incident and the claim occur during the active policy period for coverage to apply.
863 / 1231
A hospital following defense counsel does not need to select experts witnesses for medical negligence
A hospital needs to select experts witnesses in order improve their expert testimony.
864 / 1231
The goal of due diligence is to complete legal and financial review of an organization.
The true goal is to complete legal and financial review of all organizations.
865 / 1231
In claim management, healthcare entities face limited exposures, mainly related to medical malpractice.
Entities may face wide exposures such as hospitals, medical, or long term care malpractice.
866 / 1231
Corporation negligences cannot impact medical malpractice lawsuits.
Corporation negligences can also weigh in on medical malpractice suits depending on if the health facility knew of a defect.
867 / 1231
There is no difference between ostensible and apparent agency in a healthcare setting.
Under the doctrine of 'Respondeat Superior', an employer _can_ be held responsible for the actions of employees within the scope of their employment.
868 / 1231
Internal investigations are an optional part of most claims resolutions.
Internal investigations are crucial with collecting facts.
869 / 1231
'Vicarious liability' means imposing the same liability the employee has to another person.
Vicarious liability means imposing liability on one person for the actionable conduct of another, based solely on a relationship between the two persons.
870 / 1231
'Respondeat Superior' means an employer is never responsible for the acts of their employees.
871 / 1231
Claim file management involves the logical ordering and maintaining of all documents related to a claim.
Effective file management ensures that all crucial documents are organized in a manner facilitating easy access and reference.
872 / 1231
After a claim, setting reserves involves identifying the claimant's attorney.
Setting reserves are a tool to estimate liabilities for the claim.
873 / 1231
A goal of claim management is reducing negative impacts on a hospital's image.
By being proactive at reducing risks a hospital will also reduce negative media coverage.
874 / 1231
Internal investigations are optional in claims handling.
Internal investigations are very important to collect and maintain factual information.
875 / 1231
An insurance policy has no impact on the claims management process.
Insurance policies dictate important parameters of claims, such as the extent of coverage and insurer responsibilities.
876 / 1231
A systematic approach to claim management aims to increase the financial loss for a healthcare organization.
Claim management actually aims to *decrease* financial loss and prevent a negative image.
877 / 1231
A claim management program's success relies solely on the efficiency of its technology.
A successful program relies on leadership, culture, infrastructure, and other factors in addition to technology.
878 / 1231
A 'claim' is a formal demand for monetary damages due to an alleged injury.
A claim is indeed a formal notification seeking monetary compensation for a perceived injury or loss.
879 / 1231
A risk manager's role is the same across different organizations, regardless of their insurance program.
A risk manager's role depends on the organization's nature and insurance program, influencing the extent of their involvement.
880 / 1231
The 'identification' step in claims management involves assessing coverage and setting reserves.
The identification phase is about recognizing a potential claim, whereas assessing coverage and setting reserves occur later in the process.
881 / 1231
In a commercial insurance coverage, the facility always bears the responsibility for covering losses.
In commercial insurance coverage, the insurer typically assumes the responsibility for covering losses, as outlined in the insurance policy.
882 / 1231
The claims management process begins when an event occurs and concludes with the resolution of the claim.
The claims management process encompasses all stages, from the initial incident to its final resolution.
883 / 1231
A claim always involves a formal lawsuit filed in court.
A claim can be a precursor to a lawsuit, but it doesn't necessarily involve legal action. It starts with a notification that damages are being sought.
884 / 1231
You are helping the defense council select an expert witness in a case regarding alleged breast cancer misdiagnosis. What would it be the **ABSOLUTE BEST** action?
Retaining an outside person would add weight to your side of the defense.
885 / 1231
To have the most effective claims management and to review claims and potentially prevent them, what do many organizations rely on?
Formal risk data is crucial and it offers the best option to collect information by the enterprise.
886 / 1231
What is a subtle way that hospitals can be corporate negligent when thinking about staff physicians who lose staff privileges due to alcohol impairment?
It can be proved for a hospital to be corporate negligent if they fail to properly manage staff behavior or competence.
887 / 1231
Considering that a systematic evaluation of a claim is essential, what's an intended outcome a healthcare organization should look for in a claims management program?
The ultimate goal of a proper claim management system to mitigate loses from payment, plus keep the reputation in good standing.
888 / 1231
During claim investigation, what is the MOST crucial consideration when using outside investigators, particularly with regards to potentially discoverable information?
Outside entities need to adhere to confidentiality and HIPAA regulations.
889 / 1231
What factor most influences the extent to which a risk manager is involved in the actual claims management process?
Self-insured organizations rely on their risk managers to take a heavier role in claim management.
890 / 1231
A surgery resident accidentally cuts the common bile duct during a laparoscopic procedure, which was the third such incident in the last six months at the facility. What organizational failures would MOST likely be considered when litigating **corporate negligence**?
The organization displayed a disregard for patient safety due to the repeated nature of the accident.
891 / 1231
In the context of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR), what aspect of arbitration poses the MOST significant challenge for healthcare providers concerned with maintaining Standard of Care (SOC)?
There may not be a way to ensure SOC if the arbitration decision has an demonstrable decision.
892 / 1231
A hospital's security system malfunctions, resulting in unauthorized access to employee files, including sensitive medical information. Which of the following legal theories would be the **MOST directly relevant**?
Corporate Negligence is most relevant due to the security malfunction attributed to poor security that should have been maintained by the company.
893 / 1231
In a claims-made policy, what constitutes the MOST critical action for a healthcare facility upon receiving a demand letter, considering the potential implications for coverage?
A claims-made policy has specific reporting requirements to trigger coverage.
894 / 1231
As an enterprise risk professional, you are tasked to assess the quality of external legal counsel during the litigation management process. Which metric offers the MOST insightful assessment of their efficacy beyond readily available litigation outcomes?
It is not enough to win or lose the case. Legal counsel must keep their client informed about the strategy and how they plan to approach fighting the claim.
895 / 1231
An organization's risk manager observes a pattern of Emergency Medical Services (EMS) personnel deviating from established protocols due to resource constraints. A patient subsequently experiences harm. What is the MOST relevant legal theory?
If an organization knowingly under-resourced the entities involved, they failed to implement measures toward safety and protocol.
896 / 1231
During the litigation process, plaintiffs' legal counsel requests the metadata associated with changes made to an electronic health record (EHR) after a Potential Compensable Event (PCE). The defense argues that the metadata is not subject to discovery due to privilege. Under what legal rationale would the defense prevail?
Attorney work product related to EHR is typically protected from discovery.
897 / 1231
A self-insured healthcare organization discovers a historical pattern of inadequate peer review processes stemming from poor taxonomy application, leading to delayed identification of systemic risks. How would a defense attorney leverage this discovery in a subsequent claim?
A historical pattern of inadequate peer review indicates corporate negligence.
898 / 1231
In the event that a healthcare entity's actions result in the misinterpretation of diagnostic imaging, leading to delayed treatment and subsequent harm, which legal theory would MOST likely be central to the ensuing claim?
Corporate negligence is relevant when a healthcare facility fails to uphold established protocols, contributing to a misdiagnosis.
899 / 1231
Which Healthcare Providers should an expert expect to treat carefully through contracting?
Each of the Health Care Providers should be reviewed and have the necessary precautions.
900 / 1231
Within ADR (Alternative Dispute Resolution) what is something you would NOT consider?
Within ADR, you would NOT describe ADRs as 'Hostile'.
901 / 1231
During the lawsuit process, match the correct order of events.
First is the Complaint, then Summons and after that it is Answer.
902 / 1231
If a lawsuit occurs, which Due Diligence option might prevent a legal issue from re-occuring?
Policies and Procedures are an essential part to Due Diligence and ensuring safety for the future.
903 / 1231
What would be NOT expected when thinking about EMS (Emergency Medical Services)?
Informed Consent is not available if there is an emergency or the patient is incapacitated.
904 / 1231
Why does Healthcare fail to report impairment to state licensing boards?
Not reporting the provider will in turn potentially cause the provider to further injure another patient.
905 / 1231
Which of the following is the LEAST accurate statement regarding legal theories?
The 'thing' or 'employee' is also liable for their actions.
906 / 1231
During the 'analysis and classification' phase of claims management, what would indicate the strongest and most suitable methodology for determining the claim?
Analysis and Classification in Claims Management is optimized when considering documentation, internal & external factors and Taxonomy.
907 / 1231
In the setting of claim file management, what is the correct order when arranging documents?
In Claim File Management, an appropriate way to maintain order is as follows: correspondence, medical records, investigation reports, legal papers.
908 / 1231
What is the most accurate interpretation of insurer's 'duty to defend' in the context of claim management and litigation?
The 'duty to defend' compels an insurer to provide a legal defense for a claim, irrespective of its actual merit as long as the claim may result in damages payable under policy.
909 / 1231
During claim file management, what is the primary rationale for meticulously organizing documentation in a logical order?
The logical ordering of documents in claims file management is geared toward ease of reference, tracking, and detailed analysis.
910 / 1231
What's the primary role of insurance coverage information within a claim file?
Including insurance coverage details in a Claim File primarily ensures that any applicable coverage is known and to also retain any correspondence to/from the insurer.
911 / 1231
Which statement best encapsulates the relationship between ‘benchmarking’ and claim taxonomy?
Claim taxonomy is the classifying of claims which can then be used for benchmarking- comparing data against other similar organizations.
912 / 1231
In the context of legal claims, how does 'ostensible agency' most directly impact a healthcare facility?
'Ostensible agency' can create liability for a healthcare facility when a patient reasonably believes that an independent contractor is an employee of the facility.
913 / 1231
In what scenario would the 'corporate negligence' legal theory be most applicable?
'Corporate negligence' addresses the healthcare organization's direct responsibility for failing to uphold a reasonable standard of care through proper policies, procedures, and oversight, such as negligent credentialing.
914 / 1231
What is the most critical element in ensuring an effective claims investigation when using outside investigators?
HIPAA compliance is paramount to protect patient privacy and avoid legal repercussions, making a confidentiality agreement a must.
915 / 1231
Which of the following actions would be most effective in supporting healthcare staff during a high-anxiety claim event?
Providing support and resources helps staff cope with the anxiety, fostering a more resilient and cooperative environment during claims management.
916 / 1231
How would a risk manager's role differ between a self-insured healthcare organization and one that is commercially insured?
In a self-insured setting, the risk manager takes a 'hands-on' approach, actively managing claims. In a commercially insured setting, their role is more observational.
917 / 1231
What distinguishes a 'claim' from a 'potentially compensable event (PCE)' in healthcare risk management?
A claim is a formal notification that monetary damages are being sought, whereas a PCE is an event that could lead to a claim but hasn't yet resulted in a formal demand for compensation.
918 / 1231
What would define: document reciting all the allegations against defendant?
It is the first document as part of a process!
919 / 1231
In the lawsuit process, several things must occur. Which answer has the correct procedures (3)?
Pleading, trial & post-trial are essential in any legal procedure.
920 / 1231
Many processes or stages will assist in claims management. Which of the following statements aligns to such?
The stages are: Identification, Investigation, document, classification, reporting, coverage, setting reserves, strategies, resolution.
921 / 1231
Which statement accurately highlights the roles/responsibilities of healthcare facilities in medical malpractice claims?
Clarifying requirements for reporting, lawsuits and claims is very important.
922 / 1231
To completely stop losses when thinking about Due Diligence, what are the major components?
These items make for a better operation of your organization.
923 / 1231
Which outside specialist would you retain given a lawsuit for breast cancer?
Due to it concerning a breast cancer negligence, the best professional would be the oncologist.
924 / 1231
What is the **BEST** reaction when a medical staff reports they accidentally saw the name of a famous celebrity?
A subpoena will always give an individual an opportunity to object, so be sure to notify them.
925 / 1231
What is the proper legal theory to use when hospitals are accused of negligence in retaining surgical sponges?
Res Ipsa is when “the thing speaks for itself."
926 / 1231
When a healthcare facilities has been served with a demand, who is the FIRST to notify?
In these situations, it is very important to work with the insurers.
927 / 1231
What action can and should an enterprise risk professional do in reaction to their company suffering litigation?
Providing support to not feel stress helps boost employee morale, reduce further litigation.
928 / 1231
When organizations assess acquisitions in healthcare, what is one of key factors?
It is always important to make a great assessment.
929 / 1231
If a doctor who is not directly employed seems to work for a hospital, they may be considered what?
An ostensible agent is when there is an independent contractor.
930 / 1231
Which of the following examples would be best described as 'Negligence Per Se'?
When people are not following rules due to medical liscenses, that is when negligennce per se is the best.
931 / 1231
How hospitals not reporting physician impairment to state licensing boards could lead to what?
Healthcare facilities must take care in who they employ and the allocation of resources, negligent selection can be the ultimate decider here.
932 / 1231
In states where hospitals employ physicians, which legal doctrine could apply?
Respondeat Superior applied because hospitals are responsible for the actions of their employees.
933 / 1231
What is the primary difference between 'Res Ipsa Loquitur' and 'Negligence per se'?
Res ipsa is when 'the thing speaks for itself', whereas negligence per se involves a violation.
934 / 1231
In General Liability, what does 'Slander' refer to?
Slander is different than libel which is written.
935 / 1231
According to insurers, what action may they take to validate accuracy of the claim?
Insurers commonly audit claims to ensure that there are no errors or missing information.
936 / 1231
What is the role of 'indemnity' in 'reserving'?
When you calculate the reserve needed, the Indemnity Reserve + Expense Reserve = required reserve.
937 / 1231
What is included in Claim File Management?
Keeping things orderly helps.
938 / 1231
During claims management, what does the ‘analysis and classification’ step primarily involve?
This step requires a careful review and categorization to decide if an organization is liable.
939 / 1231
In healthcare claims, what does the term ‘PCE’ refer to?
A PCE is any occurrence that may lead to a future claim or lawsuit.
940 / 1231
Which of the following is the **LEAST** important factor to consider during claim investigation?
While an important consideration overall, it is less important than direct factual findings or level of control of the insurer themselves.
941 / 1231
What is the purpose of a documentation checklist in the claims management process?
Thorough documentation is essential for accurate analysis and effective claims handling.
942 / 1231
In claims management, what does ‘taxonomy’ aid in?
Taxonomy helps organize and classify data for analytical purposes.
943 / 1231
Which is NOT a formal document typically produced during initial claims documentation?
The letter of representation, demand letter, and preservation notice offer proper documentation.
944 / 1231
What is an example of an **informal** risk identification system?
Formal systems are thoroughly documented and structured, while informal options stem from other systems.
945 / 1231
When using outside investigators during the investigation phase, what is extremely crucial?
Compliance with HIPAA is paramount when sharing patient information with outside parties.
946 / 1231
What is the intended outcome of a systematic approach to claims management?
Effective claims management aims to minimize negative impacts on both finances and reputation.
947 / 1231
What constitutes a **formal** claim?
It's important to check the definition in your insurance policy.
948 / 1231
During Trial, there has been an incident in which the jury acted inappropriately. What do you do? What do you dooo?
During Trial if there has been some wrong action by a jury that may affect their impartiality, mistrial must almost always be sought.
949 / 1231
What is the key factor that determines a risk manager's role in claims management?
A risk manager's role greatly depends on whether the organization is commercially insured or self-insured.
950 / 1231
Why is the initial step of claims management so very crucial?
Without the first step, there is no journey at all.
951 / 1231
In pre-trial precedures, what is a joinder?
Joinders add additional defendants to a lawsuit.
952 / 1231
Identify the advantage to using ADRs as an alternative to trial.
ADRs - outside the judicial process include being more economical.
953 / 1231
Which document involved in the pleading process commands the defendant appears before a judge?
The summons document orders the defendant to appear before the court.
954 / 1231
Which of the following is a core tenet of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)?
ADR methods seek to resolve disputes outside the formal court process.
955 / 1231
What is the significance of maintaining a 'claim file'?
Maintaining a claim file ensures organized storage and easy retrieval of all documentation pertaining to that claim.
956 / 1231
During claims management, what is the role of 'analysis and classification'?
This step involves thoroughly evaluating the claim under applicable policies to appropriately categorize and understand its implications.
957 / 1231
In the context of healthcare claims, what does the term 'PCE' stand for?
PCE refers to a Potential Compensable Event, indicating a situation that might lead to a claim or lawsuit.
958 / 1231
Which of the following best describes the role of 'reporting' in the claims management process?
The 'reporting' phase involves informing the insurer about relevant events, including lawsuits, known claims, or potential claims.
959 / 1231
What is the primary goal of claims management strategies?
Effective claims management aims to balance resolution efficiency with protecting the organization’s finances and reputation.
960 / 1231
According to the materials, what can a professional do to assist?
Check slide 53.
961 / 1231
A hospital receives a subpoena for some Medical Records. What is the correct course of action?
Always notify the patient, as indicated by slide 63.
962 / 1231
You're a risk professional working with defense council on selecting an expert witness in which to defend yourself for alleged brease cancer. Which specialist would you retain?
The best strategy would be to pick an Oncologist.
963 / 1231
A hospital is being sued for the actions of one of its employees. That action resulted in hypoglycemia after a glucose level was dropped, and permanent brain damage. The hospital has already been deemed as vicariously liable. What now?
Simply determining vicarious liability doesn't mean the Plaintiff wins. He must now connect damages/cause to the action.
964 / 1231
What is the most relevant legal theory for not retaining a surgical sponge?
Res Ipsa Loquitur would be the legal theory.
965 / 1231
Which of the following actions should the risk professional perform FIRST when a healthcare facility with a claims-made policy receives a request for demand?
The first step is to notify the carrier, as specified in slide 55.
966 / 1231
Which of the following is correct regarding Insurer and Insured roles?
It specifically calls out the Insurer duty to defend and reservation of rights.
967 / 1231
According to the material, what are the four major components of controlling losses to implement when involved with Due Diligence?
The four major components are Due diligence, patient communication, policies and procedures and establishing risk transfers.
968 / 1231
Which scenario would most likely trigger a claim related to "Emergency Medical Services (EMS)"?
Unjustified restraint can give rise to a claim against EMS providers.
969 / 1231
What is the primary focus of legal theories related to *'exposures of healthcare entities'*?
The main concern is to recognize potential causes of action against facilities like hospitals or medical centers, helping to mitigate risk.
970 / 1231
Which of the following scenarios is most applicable to the legal theory of *corporate negligence*?
Corporate negligence revolves around the institution's direct failures, such as inadequate screening processes.
971 / 1231
What is the key characteristic of ostensible agency?
The principle holds the agent responsible based on the appearance of an agency relationship, rather than a formal agreement.
972 / 1231
In legal theories, respondeat superior refers to:
According to the doctrine of respondeat superior, employers are responsible for the actions of their employees, provided those actions occur within the scope of employment.
973 / 1231
What is the legal definition of "Res Ipsa Loquitur?"
Res Ipsa Loquitur translates to 'the thing speaks for itself'.
974 / 1231
What is the primary purpose of 'setting reserves' in claims management?
Setting reserves involves estimating the funds required to resolve a claim, covering settlement or judgment payouts.
975 / 1231
In the context of claims management, what is 'taxonomy' used for?
Taxonomy is used for benchmarking and loss runs, specifically for insurers and underwriters.
976 / 1231
What action should a risk manager take if a self-insured entity faces a major claim?
Self-insured entities require active engagement from the risk manager in handling claims.
977 / 1231
What documentation related to a claim is time-sensitive and is used to communicate representation?
The letter of representation formally declares legal representation in a claim.
978 / 1231
Which of the following is an element of formal risk assessment, versus informal risk assessment?
Incident reporting is a structured element of formal risk assessment.
979 / 1231
Which activity is part of the 'Identification' stage in claims management?
The initial stage involves setting up a system to spot any potential issues or circumstances that could lead to a claim.
980 / 1231
During the 'investigation' phase of claims management, what is a crucial consideration when using outside investigators?
Privacy is paramount; outside investigators must adhere to HIPAA regulations and execute confidentiality agreements.
981 / 1231
A systematic approach to claims management aims primarily to achieve which of the following?
A focus of claims management is to minimize financial losses and protect the organization's public image.
982 / 1231
Which element is described as being essential for a successful claims management program?
Leadership and board buy-in are essential to the success of a claims management program.
983 / 1231
According to the material, what constitutes a claim?
A claim is initiated with a formal notification seeking monetary compensation for a claimed injury.
984 / 1231
Which of the following best describes the role of a risk manager regarding insurance programs?
The risk manager's role differs depending on the insurance program, with commercially insured entities requiring limited monitoring and self-insured entities requiring active participation.
985 / 1231
What is the initial step in the claims management process?
The claims management process begins with identifying a potential claim.
986 / 1231
Match each element of documentation improvement process with the corresponding MOI standard:
All necessary documentation improvement processes need corresponding standards to deliver quality patient care.
987 / 1231
Match each MOI standard with the related description:
Management standards provide frameworks for procedures that govern the use and documentation of medical information.
988 / 1231
Match each document/information with the relevant MOI standard:
Documents and information must be kept in accordance with the indicated MOI standards in order to ensure the integrity, privacy, and quality of patient data.
989 / 1231
Match each MOI (Management of Information) standard with the method used to verify compliance:
Understanding the methods used to ensure compliance with information management standards is essential for maintaining data integrity and patient safety.
990 / 1231
MOI 7.1 states that documentation improvement in the center is optional, based on available resources.
MOI 7.1 states there _is_ a policy and procedure for clinical documentation improvement in the center.
991 / 1231
If system failure occurs, MOI 6.2 allows that verbal instructions can be given in place of documented procedures.
MOI 6.2 requires the policy and procedure describe the _manual procedures_ required to execute various activities in the event of system failure.
992 / 1231
According to MOI 6.1, it is sufficient to only back up generated information annually as long as there is a detailed justification in the facility's policy.
MOI 6.1 requires that the policy and procedure highlight how the generated information is stored and _regularly_ backed up.
993 / 1231
According to MOI 5.3, non-completed medical records can remain mixed with completed records if they are clearly marked with a bright color tag.
MOI 5.3 indicates the non-completed medical records are _clearly separated_ from completed ones.
994 / 1231
MOI 5.1 requires that the dedicated and secure storage area for medical records must also be temperature controlled to preserve the integrity of paper records.
MOI 5.1 states that there must be a dedicated and secure storage area for medical records but does not mention temperature control.
995 / 1231
If an unapproved abbreviation is widely understood within the facility, then its use would still satisfy MOI 4.4.
MOI 4.4 requires only _standardized_ and _approved_ abbreviations and symbols are used in medical records.
996 / 1231
MOI 4.3 allows for physical erasures in a medical record if the author initials the change and provides a brief explanation nearby.
MOI 4.3 indicates that entries written in error are not deleted or erased. Instead, a line is passed through the error text and dated, timed, and signed by the author.
997 / 1231
If the policy identifies the staff that must destroy medical records, it satisfies MOI 4.1.
MOI 4.1 requires that the policy identifies which staff can _write_ in the medical record, not which are involved in destroying it.
998 / 1231
According to MOI 3.6, if patient allergies change frequently, it is permissible to document allergies in a separate, less secure attachment to their record.
According to MOI 3.6, ensure patient allergies, prior adverse reactions, and chronic infections are confidentially documented and consistently displayed in a specified area of the patient's record.
999 / 1231
If medical information is sufficient to safely manage the patient, continuity of medical care is not a relevant concern in MOI 3.5.
According to MOI 3.5, medical record must contain updated information that is sufficient to safely manage and promote continuity of medical care.
1000 / 1231
According to MOI 3.3, the medical record's contents are to be arranged according to a non-standard process depending on the complexity of the patient history.
MOI 3.3 specifies the medical record's contents are arranged according to a _standardized_ process.
1001 / 1231
MOI 3.1 requires that the physical space where each patient is seen has a unique medical record number.
MOI 3.1 states that each patient has a unique medical record number.
1002 / 1231
According to MOI 2.2, a list of approved abbreviations and symbols is distributed in all patient care areas *except* when dealing with complex cases.
MOI 2.2 states a list should be available in all patient care areas without exception.
1003 / 1231
MOI 2.1 states that staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that are consistent with the Ministry of Truth.
MOI 2.1 indicates consistency with diagnosis and procedure codes consistent with the Ministry of _Health_.
1004 / 1231
If different documents have retention times in agreement with the Ministry of Health, the MOI 1.7 requirements are satisfied.
MOI 1.7 requires the plan highlights the different documents retention time consistent with Ministry of Health rules and regulations.
1005 / 1231
MOI 1.5 states the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information.
MOI 1.5 specifically says that the plan identifies the staff security levels for accessing the information.
1006 / 1231
If the plan includes the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting then it automatically satisfies MOI 1.3.
MOI 1.3 specifically states that the plan should include the Ministry of Health required information and the frequency of reporting.
1007 / 1231
MOI 1.1 requires that the plan highlights how patient geographical information is shared among medical and administrative staff.
MOI 1.1 indicates that the plan highlights how patient _demographic_ and medical information is shared, not patient geographical information.
1008 / 1231
If the number of standards is 7, then the number of sub standards must always be 49 in the Management of Information chapter.
With 7 standards, the number of sub standards is 28. There is no requirement that the one multiple is always related to the other.
1009 / 1231
The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board focuses exclusively on inpatient healthcare institution accreditation.
The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board specifically deals with the accreditation of _ambulatory_ healthcare institutions.
1010 / 1231
According to MOI.6, the use of information technology requires appropriate policies and procedures. What is not addressed in the facility policy?
The policy shares the how, but not the who.
1011 / 1231
According to MOI.5.3 about non-completed medical records, what protocol should healthcare facilities implement?
Clearly separated from completed ones and completed within a timeframe.
1012 / 1231
According to MOI.4.3, what is the recommended approach for correcting errors made in a patient's medical record?
Draw a line; do not erase.
1013 / 1231
According to MOI.4.2, which of the following guidelines should all entries in a medical record adhere to?
Entries should be legible, dated, timed and signed.
1014 / 1231
According to MOI.4.1, why is it important to identify the category of staff allowed to write in the medical record?
This ensures only qualified individuals contribute to patient documentation.
1015 / 1231
According to MOI.4, leaders should develop a policy on the rules and regulation for writing patients’ medical records. What aspect of documentation does this primarily address?
It is important to provide clear guidelines for documentation.
1016 / 1231
According to MOI.3.6, what considerations should guide the documentation and display of patient allergies, prior adverse reactions, and chronic infections?
These should be documented confidentially.
1017 / 1231
What is the primary purpose of including updated medical information in a patient's medical record, as emphasized in MOI.3.5?
To enable healthcare providers to safely manage the patient's condition and ensure continuity of medical care.
1018 / 1231
According to MOI.3.4, what are the key patient demographics that should be included in a medical record?
Required information: National identification, contact information, emergency contacts, and insurance category.
1019 / 1231
According to MOI.3.3, how does a standardized approach to arranging the contents of medical records benefit healthcare providers and patients?
A standardized process to medical records helps health providers quickly locate info.
1020 / 1231
According to MOI.3.2, what would most likely indicate effective medical record keeping for patients?
Maintaining a single integrated medical record ensures easy access to information.
1021 / 1231
According to MOI.3, what is the primary importance of each patient having a unique medical record?
Unique records allow efficient record management and personalized care.
1022 / 1231
According to MOI.2.2, what step can healthcare facilities take to promote standardization and clarity in clinical documentation?
Distributing a list of abbreviations and symbols promotes standardization.
1023 / 1231
According to MOI.2.1, why should staff use diagnosis and procedure codes that align with the Ministry of Health and other regulatory bodies' requirements?
Using standardized codes reduces billing discrepancies and legal issues.
1024 / 1231
According to MOI.2, what is the primary goal of developing standardized diagnosis codes, procedure codes, and symbols?
Developing standardized codes, procedure codes and symbols allows clear communication.
1025 / 1231
According to MOI.1.7, what is the primary reason for maintaining consistent document retention times in accordance with Ministry of Health rules and regulations?
Maintaining consistent document retention times ensures compliance with regulation.
1026 / 1231
According to MOI.1.6 , what is the primary consideration for ensuring the security of patient information?
Robust security measures and secure storage practices are important.
1027 / 1231
According to MOI.1.5, what should healthcare facilities do to protect patient data and maintain confidentiality?
Facilities should implement tiered security levels to protect patient data.
1028 / 1231
Why is it important to highlight the patient's personal and medical information when referring them to a higher center, according to MOI.1.4?
Highlighting patient's personal and medical information ensures continuity of appropriate care.
1029 / 1231
What is the primary purpose of including the Ministry of Health's required information in the reporting process, as stated in MOI.1.3?
Including the Ministry of Health's required information ensures regulatory compliance.
1030 / 1231
According to MOI.1.2, how should healthcare leaders ensure effective communication of information to staff?
Healthcare leaders should tailor communication methods to different staff needs.
1031 / 1231
What is the primary goal of sharing information among staff, governmental, and non-governmental entities as defined in MOI.1?
Sharing information among staff and other entities aims to streamline communication and coordination.
1032 / 1231
In the context of healthcare accreditation, what is the significance of 'Policies and Procedures (P&P)'?
Policies and Procedures (P&P) are crucial for standardization of healthcare operations.
1033 / 1231
The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board for Accreditation of Healthcare Institutions emphasizes the importance of which aspect in healthcare facilities?
The Ambulatory Health Care Standards Saudi Central Board is responsible for the accreditation of healthcare institutions, emphasizing adherence to standards.
1034 / 1231
Which of the following represents the primary focus of Clinical Documentation Improvement (CDI) policies and procedures?
CDI policies and procedures aim to enhance the quality of healthcare by ensuring that clinical documentation is accurate, complete, and supports appropriate coding and billing practices.
1035 / 1231
Which MOI standards relate to patients? Classify each item using the correct standard.:
All of the best patient support standards should ensure their privacy.
1036 / 1231
Match the MOI standard relating to IT to the type of information required of it:
Information standards help ensure that IT can continue to run in a medical setting.
1037 / 1231
Match the types of leadership responsibilitiy standards to the following:
Leadership is trained to facilitate a working environment
1038 / 1231
Match medical standards and documentation with the following:
Medical professionals are experts in medicine and therefore must comply with training.
1039 / 1231
Match the center tech standard with the measures they must oversee:
All medical center teck standards must comply with specific measures.
1040 / 1231
Match MOI standard per facility to the storage record measure:
Ensure that storage records meet standard measures to facilitate retention and minimize tampering.
1041 / 1231
Match the MOI standard, per facility, to the safety and compliance measure it represents:
Ensure compliance with safety and quality measures required in facilities.
1042 / 1231
Match each type of medical record from the following facilities to the correct MOI standard:
Standards need to be set to comply with each medical center.
1043 / 1231
Match each of the following document reviews to the correct MOI standard:
Meeting standards in documentation can require document reviews.
1044 / 1231
Indicate the correct MOI standard by matching each of the following definitions:
To ensure a safe working environement it is critical to have a safe medical record environment.
1045 / 1231
Match each aspect of a unique medical record usage to the corresponding MOI standard:
Medical records need a corresponding standard that ensures proper information.
1046 / 1231
Match each IT policy with the corresponding MOI standard:
IT policies need certain standards to maintain an up-to-date and secure data.
1047 / 1231
Match each storage aspect of medical records to the corresponding MOI standard:
Storage aspect standards needs corresponding standards that ensures data and privacy consistency.
1048 / 1231
Match each aspect of facility policy compliance with its corresponding MOI standard:
Facilities need compliance with certain MOI standards to ensure quality data integrity.
1049 / 1231
Match each medical record error correction aspect to the corresponding MOI standard:
To maintain the standards and integrity of patients' medical documents, documentation error corrections is essential.
1050 / 1231
Match each component of patient record management to the corresponding MOI standard:
Managing patient records require a corresponding standards, which ensures quality and consistency.
1051 / 1231
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